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P3X-018
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[SOLVED] Projection Theorem
If M is a closed subspace of a Hilbert space H, let x be any element in H and y in M, then I have to show that
[tex] \|x-y\| =\inf_{m\in M}\|x-m\| [/tex]
implies (equivalent to) that
[tex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/tex]
I have shown the implication "<=", ie that [itex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/itex] implies the 1st statement. And I've been told that the implication (=>) I now want to show is basically in the that proof.
The proof for "<=" goes like: If [itex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/itex] then (x-y,z) = 0 for all z in M, so by Pythagoras thm
[tex] \|x-y+z\|^2 = \|x-y\|^2 +\|z\| \geq \|x-y\|^2 [/tex]
M subspace => [itex] m = y-z \in M[/itex]. So [itex] \|x-y\| \leq \|x-m\|[/itex] for all m in M. So this gives the implication the other way around.
But I don't see how I can go back, nor how the 'proof' for "=>" is basically contained in my this proof.
And how or where should I use that M is closed, I feel like it should have been used to conclude the implication "<=" from knowing [itex] \|x-y\| \leq \|x-m\|[/itex], or is it not needed for "<="?
Homework Statement
If M is a closed subspace of a Hilbert space H, let x be any element in H and y in M, then I have to show that
[tex] \|x-y\| =\inf_{m\in M}\|x-m\| [/tex]
implies (equivalent to) that
[tex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
I have shown the implication "<=", ie that [itex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/itex] implies the 1st statement. And I've been told that the implication (=>) I now want to show is basically in the that proof.
The proof for "<=" goes like: If [itex] x-y\in M^{\perp} [/itex] then (x-y,z) = 0 for all z in M, so by Pythagoras thm
[tex] \|x-y+z\|^2 = \|x-y\|^2 +\|z\| \geq \|x-y\|^2 [/tex]
M subspace => [itex] m = y-z \in M[/itex]. So [itex] \|x-y\| \leq \|x-m\|[/itex] for all m in M. So this gives the implication the other way around.
But I don't see how I can go back, nor how the 'proof' for "=>" is basically contained in my this proof.
And how or where should I use that M is closed, I feel like it should have been used to conclude the implication "<=" from knowing [itex] \|x-y\| \leq \|x-m\|[/itex], or is it not needed for "<="?
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