Solving A Trignometric Equation

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The discussion revolves around solving the trigonometric equation cos(2x)(2cos(x)+1)=0 in the interval [0, 2π]. The solutions are derived by setting cos(2x)=0 and 2cos(x)+1=0, leading to four solutions for cos(2x) due to its shorter period, while cos(x) yields two solutions. The correct solutions for cos(2x)=0 are x=π/4, 3π/4, 5π/4, and 7π/4, while for 2cos(x)+1=0, the solutions are x=2π/3 and 4π/3. Clarifications on notation and the importance of visualizing the functions were also discussed, enhancing understanding of the problem. Overall, the calculations and reasoning align with the properties of trigonometric functions.
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Homework Statement



Find all solutions to the equation in the interval [0,2\pi] algebraically.

cos2x(2cos+1)=0

Homework Equations



NA

The Attempt at a Solution



This is what I've done, but I don't think it's right. I set cos2x=0 and 2cos+1=0. Since cos2x is a multi-angle, I let t=2x and rewrote it as cost=0 That means t equals \pi\2+n\pi.

That also means 2x=\pi\2+n\pi. After dividing out the 2, I get x=\pi\4+n\pi\2.

I get the answers \pi\4, 3\pi\4, 5\pi\4, and 7\pi\4. This doesn't seem right to me. Shouldn't I only get two answers.

The other one seems easier. I got cosx by itself and it is cosx=-1\2. That means x is equal to 2\pi\3 and 4\pi\3.

Am I doing this correctly?

Thanks!
 
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The pi symbols aren't supposed to be raised up like that. It's just pi; sorry about that.
 
cosx=0 has two solutions, but you have four solutions to cos2x=0. That 2 multiplied with the x in cos2x makes its period only half as long as that of cosx, going from a period of 2\pi to \pi
cosx=0 has just two solutions in [0, \pi], so cos2x=0 should have twice as many solutions, because it now goes through two periods in [0, \pi].

Hopefully this doesn't make it more complicated for you. You can also look at the graph of cos2x to see that there are four solutions in [0, \pi].


Instead of the [ tex ] tags, you can use [ itex ] where the LaTeX fits better within other text like you have. Also, your division lines should be going the other way. For example, \pi/4
 
Thank you for you reply! I plugged in the equations separately, and then as the original equation. It really helped visualize what was going on and I could double check using the trace function. I did not think to try this before. It all makes sense now!

I'll try to clean up my tags and symbols; thanks for the tips.
 
?? What does "2cos+1" mean? Is that supposed to be "2cos(x)+ 1"?
If the problem is to solve cos(2x)(2cos(x)+ 1)= 0 then, yes, either cos(2x)= 0 or 2cos(x)+ 1= 0. cosine is 0, in the interval [0, 2\pi] only for 0 and 2\pi so you have 2x= 0 and 2x= 2\pi as roots.

2cos(x)+ 1= 0 gives cos(x)= -1/2. Think about dividing an equilateral triangle in half.
 
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It's supposed to be 2cos(x)+1. I'm sorry, I mistyped it. I calculated the problem correctly and Bohrok helped me understand why x has twice as many solutions for cos(2x)=0.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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