Solving Integrals: Proofing I_n = I_{n-1} (n-1)/(n+2)

  • Thread starter Thread starter SqueeSpleen
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrals Sequence
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving a relationship between integrals defined as \( I_n = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2n-1}}{(x^2+1)^{n+3}} \, dx \) for natural numbers \( n \geq 1 \). The goal is to show that \( I_n = I_{n-1} \frac{(n-1)}{(n+2)} \) for all \( n \geq 2 \).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various attempts to manipulate the integral, including using substitution and integration by parts. There are questions about the proper handling of limits and differential elements in the context of substitution. Some participants express uncertainty about their English and LaTeX skills, which affects their ability to communicate their thoughts clearly.

Discussion Status

Several participants have shared their attempts and reasoning, with some suggesting that integration by parts may lead to a solution. There is acknowledgment of the complexity involved in proving the general term, and while some participants feel they are making progress, there is no explicit consensus on the approach being the definitive solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note challenges related to language barriers and the use of LaTeX for mathematical expressions. There is also mention of the need to clarify the definitions and assumptions related to the integral and its limits.

SqueeSpleen
Messages
138
Reaction score
5
I don't speak English very well, so it's very hard to me to explain my attemps to solve this problem, and I'm still learning to use latex, so it's so slow to me. I can scan my attemps if you want to see them.

Homework Statement

[tex]I_n = \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2n-1}/(x^2+1)^{n+3} \dx, n \geq 1[/tex]
I have to proof
[tex]I_{n} = I_{n-1} (n-1)/(n+2) \forall n \geq 2[/tex]

Homework Equations



n is a natural number.

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't speak English very well, so it's very hard to me to explain my attemps to solve this problem, and I'm still learning to use latex, so it's so slow to me. I can scan my attemps if you want to see them.
The integral's solution is a partcial fractions.
It's a sum from i=0 to n = (n!/((n-i)!(i!)))/(i+3)
(The combinatory number between i and n / i+3).
For example:
For n = 3
1/3-2/4+1/5
For n = 4
1/3-/4+3/5-1/6

Using u=x^2+1
[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2n-1}/(x^2+1)^{n+3} \dx = \int_{0}^{\infty} (u-1)^{n-1}/(u)^{n+3} \du[/tex]

In a way similar to the way you use to create pascal's triangle:

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} (u-1)^{n-1}/(u)^{n+3} \du = \int_{0}^{\infty} (u-1)^{n-2}/(u)^{n+2} - (u-1)^{n-2}/(u)^{n+3} \du[/tex]

So

[tex]I_n = I_{n-1} - \int_{0}^{\infty} (u-1)^{n-2}/(u)^{n+3} \du[/tex]

For example for n=4 (1/3-3/4+3/5-1/6) = (1/3-2/4+1/5)+(-1/4+2/5-1/6).

I don't write more because I think it's better to use my time to keep trying to solve this (It's SO slow to me write things in latex, and without latex a lot of things are almost impossible to write), I think I prove you I already tried to solve this.

Ah, I don't know how to write dx, du, dy, etc while using LaTeX in the integrals.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Welcome to PF!

Hi SqueeSpleen! Welcome to PF! :smile:

(Nice LaTeX, btw! :wink:)
SqueeSpleen said:
Ah, I don't know how to write dx, du, dy, etc in the integrals.

When you use substitution in an integral, you must do two things …

i] change the limits (in this case, u goes from 1 to ∞, doesn't it? :wink:)

ii] change the dx (in this case, du = 2x dx).

(btw, you must always write the dx or du after an ∫ :frown:)

However, in this case, I don't think you need to substitute …

you should be able to get the solution very quicly by using https://www.physicsforums.com/library.php?do=view_item&itemid=199" :smile:
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I mean, I don't know how to write dx, du, dy, etc with LaTeX in the integrals.
I used integration by parts, I know how to do one integral, but I can't proof the general term.
Thank you, I registered a months ago but I don't post very often because my English is a pretty bad (I have to think a lot to make this posts and I'm almost sure I've done a lot of misstakes here).
I don't know why but I didn't thought I could solve this using integration by parts in the general integral (to every n).
I'll try.
[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2n-1}/(x^2+1)^{n+3} \dx = (u-1)^{n-1}/((n+2)u^{n+2}) + \int_{0}^{\infty} (n-1)(u-1)^{n-2}/((n+2)(u)^{n+2}) \du[/tex]
I thought parts wasn't the solution.
But then I realized that
[tex](u-1)^{n-1}/((n+2)u^{n+2})[/tex]
[tex]x^{2n-2}/((n+2)(x^2+1)^{n+2})[/tex]
Is equal to 0 because it's evaluated between 0 and infinity, and both tend to zero, when x= 0 then is 0 because the upper part (I don't know how do you call it in English), and when x->infinity both parts tend to infinity, but the lower part has an higher exponent, so it tends to zero.
Then:
[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2n-1}/(x^2+1)^{n+3} \dx = \int_{0}^{\infty} (n-1)(u-1)^{n-2}/((n+2)(u)^{n+2}) \du[/tex]

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{2n-1}/(x^2+1)^{n+3} \dx = (n-1)/(n+2) \int_{0}^{\infty} (u-1)^{n-2}/(u)^{n+2} \du[/tex]

Which is equal to

[tex]I_{n} = I_{n-1} (n-1)/(n+2) \forall n \geq 2[/tex]

The other steps of induction are more easy to do.

Thanks, if you would have solve this instead me I should feel an idiot =/
 
Last edited:
Edited.
 
Last edited:
Looks good! :smile:

Officially, those parts are called the "numerator" and the "denominator", but nearly everyone actually calls them the "top" and the "bottom". :wink:

(btw, you should by now be able to do these without substitution:

remove an x from x2n-1 and you have x/(x2 + 1)n+3,

which you should be able to see immediately is a factor times the derivative of 1/(x2 + 1)n+2)
 
Yes, but with substitution looks a bit easier to me.
Denominator and numerator :P, I should tried to "translate by instint" it :P, in Spanish they're denominador and numerador.
 
SqueeSpleen said:
Yes, but with substitution looks a bit easier to me.
Denominator and numerator :P, I should tried to "translate by instint" it :P, in Spanish they're denominador and numerador.

That sort of thing tends to happen when we take our terms from Latin. I've noticed that most if not all math terms in English are cognates with either Latin or German words.
 
Oh, when I was writing it in LaTeX I forgot a 1/2 after the substitution.
Anyway it isn't important (in this problem).
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
5K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K