Solving Integrals with Contour Integrals and Cauchy PV

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter pleasehelpmeno
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrals
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the validity of using the Cauchy Principal Value theorem and contour integrals to solve the integral \(\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} x + \frac{1}{x} dx\). The conclusion is that the reasoning is flawed due to the presence of a pole at \(x=0\) on the contour, necessitating an additional semicircle to circumvent this singularity. The initial integral was approximated using a Taylor expansion, which raised concerns about its validity since the expansion was centered at \(x=0\). The discussion suggests exploring complex analysis techniques for a more robust solution.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of contour integration
  • Familiarity with the Cauchy Principal Value theorem
  • Knowledge of Taylor series expansions
  • Basic concepts of complex analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of the Cauchy Principal Value in improper integrals
  • Learn advanced techniques in contour integration, particularly around singularities
  • Explore complex variable theory and its applications in integration
  • Investigate alternative methods for evaluating integrals with poles, such as residue theory
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physics students, and anyone interested in advanced calculus and complex analysis techniques for solving integrals.

pleasehelpmeno
Messages
154
Reaction score
0
In trying to solve \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} x + \frac{1}{x} dx could it be split up and solved using the Cauchy Principle Value theorem and a contour integral along a semi-circle. Thus;
PV\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}x dx =0 +\int \frac{1}{x} dx = \int^{\pi}_{0} i d\theta

Is this valid reasoning?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, it isn't. For one thing, you have a pole at x= 0 which is on your contour. You would need another semicircle around x= 0 to avoid that.
 
The initial intergal was f(x)=\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}dx so I taylor expanded it to get f(x) \approx \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} x + \frac{y^{2}}{2x} dx

I thought one could then justify that the cauchy principle value of \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} x dx =0 and then what I have done with the \frac{1}{x} integral. I am doubting my approach because the Taylor series was about x=0 which seems odd, is there a better way? I read that one take x to be complex then contour interagtes it, I am just not sure how?
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
5K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K