herraotic
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Let a,b>1 be integers such that for all n>0 we have a^n-1|b^n-1. Then b is a natural power of a. I can't find a solution.
The discussion revolves around a number theory problem involving integers a and b greater than 1, specifically the condition that for all n > 0, a^n - 1 divides b^n - 1. Participants are exploring whether this implies that b is a natural power of a, and they are seeking solutions or proofs related to this assertion.
Participants do not reach a consensus on the implications of the original condition. Multiple competing views remain regarding the validity of the assertion and the nature of potential counterexamples.
Some participants note that the problem may be more complex than initially thought, with references to its history in mathematical literature and previous discussions in other forums. There is also mention of the difficulty in proving the converse of the original statement.
It doesn't look right to me. As far as I can tell you have a|b and nothing else. In other words if b/a is an integer, then so is (b/a)n.herraotic said:Let a,b>1 be integers such that for all n>0 we have a^n-1|b^n-1. Then b is a natural power of a. I can't find a solution.
Since your hypothesis is for all n, then for n=2, you are assuming a|b, which means b/a is an integer. Since all positive integer powers of integers are integers, there seems to be nothing else there.Martin Rattigan said:Well mathman doesn't actually give a counterexample or prove a|b unless I'm missing something in, "In other words ...", so no progress so far.
Converse is easy to prove, and the result looks very plausible, but what is the origin of the question? I.e. is this likely to be a Sundy afternoon problem?
Martin Rattigan said:Well mathman doesn't actually give a counterexample or prove a|b unless I'm missing something in, "In other words ...", so no progress so far.
Converse is easy to prove, and the result looks very plausible, but what is the origin of the question? I.e. is this likely to be a Sundy afternoon problem?
Your first step fails: the hypothesis that b is not a power of a does not imply that b is divisible by a prime that doesn't divide a.Petek said:Actually, I think my previous post is a complete solution to the problem. I wanted to acknowledge your contribution.
Petek
Hurkyl said:Your first step fails: the hypothesis that b is not a power of a does not imply that b is divisible by a prime that doesn't divide a.
e.g. consider b = 12 and a = 6.
I agree that Mathman and I were probably reading the problem incorrectly, because given thatMartin Rattigan said:I've just read Dodo's note and the previous replies now make more sense. But I think what he says is certainly correct. It is the case that
(\exists k\in N)b=a^k\implies(\forall n\in N)a^n-1|b^n-1
I think we're being asked to prove the converse. The question wouldn't make much sense read the other way.
The converse is likely to be a lot more awkward, which is why I wanted to get an idea of how much more awkward before I started thinking about it.