Spin created due to an Elastic Collision of two solid balls

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the momentum and kinetic energy associated with the spin of two solid balls during an elastic collision in a frictionless environment. Key equations for angular velocity and conservation of momentum and kinetic energy are presented, emphasizing that spin requires a tangential force, typically provided by friction. Participants clarify that while there is no energy loss due to friction, some friction is necessary to induce spin. An example is given of how a rubber ball can gain spin through specific interactions with surfaces. The main inquiry revolves around deriving equations for momentum and kinetic energy related to the spin induced by friction.
Philosophaie
Messages
456
Reaction score
0
In an Elastic Collision in free space with no gravity or friction of two solid balls of radius r1 and r2 I need to calculate the momentum and kinetic energy of the induced spin with angular velocity w1 and w2 to solve for the Conservation of Momentum and Kinetic Energy.

Spin
Angular Velocity
w1 = (v1f-v1i)/r1
w2 = (v2f-v2i)/r2
Spin Momentum
p3f(due to w1) = ?
p4f(due to w2) = ?
Spin Kinetic Energy
KE(due to w1)=?
KE(due to w2) = ?

Conservation of Momentum
m1*v1i + m2*v2i = m1*v1f + m2*v2f + p3(due to w1) +p4(due to w2)

Conservation of Kinetic Energy
1/2*m1*v1i^2 + 1/2*m2*v2i^2 = 1/2*m1*v1f^2 + 1/2*m2*v2f^2+ KE(due to w1)+ KE(due to w2)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
How can you have any change of spin with no friction?

Also, is this for schoolwork? I can move it to the schoolwork forums if it is. :smile:
 
berkeman said:
How can you have any change of spin with no friction?

Also, is this for schoolwork? I can move it to the schoolwork forums if it is. :smile:
This is not for schoolwork. In this example there is no loss due to friction. Not sure what friction on the surface is needed to induce a spin. The spin should be a sine function of how far from the Head-On Collision is of the given collision.
 
Philosophaie said:
In this example there is no loss due to friction
No [energy] loss due to friction is not the same thing as no friction. If you want to induce spin on a ball, you need to apply a tangential force. For a spherical ball of uniform density, that pretty much means "friction".

Edit: To see friction in action with [nearly] elastic collisions, bounce a hard but sticky rubber ball on a hard surface with spin and watch the succession of bounces. To get a high initial spin rate, try bouncing the ball on the floor near a wall. The ball picks up spin at the floor, maintains the spin as it strikes low on the wall and then bounces in a crazy fashion back and forth alternating its spin direction each time it strikes the floor. Check out the following at about 49 seconds in.

 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes Yan_Dalton and berkeman
What I am saying in the question is there is no loss of energy due to heat loss or other losses. The total "friction" is transferred directly to the spin as in the Conservation of Kinetic Energy equation above. What I want to know is the equation for Momentum and Kinetic Energy due to the "friction" to produce a given spin on each ball.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Let there be a person in a not yet optimally designed sled at h meters in height. Let this sled free fall but user can steer by tilting their body weight in the sled or by optimal sled shape design point it in some horizontal direction where it is wanted to go - in any horizontal direction but once picked fixed. How to calculate horizontal distance d achievable as function of height h. Thus what is f(h) = d. Put another way, imagine a helicopter rises to a height h, but then shuts off all...

Similar threads

Back
Top