Spin wave dispertion finite energy.

NEWO
Messages
93
Reaction score
0
Hi there,

I've been trying to explain why at zero wave vector Q , in some ferromagnetic materials the spin wave has a finite energy. I know that usually the energy tends to zero as the wave vector tends to zero however in some cases there is energy at zero, wave vector, I just need to know why.

I would appreciate someone to enlighten me

newo
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Most all real ferromagnetic materials have a non-zero (typically about an meV or less) spin-wave energy at q=0 that comes from the anisotropy field. Kittel has a paper on this. I'll look for it if you confirm that this is what you are talking about.

If you are talking about a larger minimum energy in some special materials, I'm unaware of that.
 
yes that is what i am looking for thank you, i would be greatful if i can see the paper.
 
Here you go :

http://prola.aps.org/abstract/PR/v81/i5/p869_1
C. Herring, C. Kittel, Phys. Rev. 81, 869 (1951)
 
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
The value of H equals ## 10^{3}## in natural units, According to : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_units, ## t \sim 10^{-21} sec = 10^{21} Hz ##, and since ## \text{GeV} \sim 10^{24} \text{Hz } ##, ## GeV \sim 10^{24} \times 10^{-21} = 10^3 ## in natural units. So is this conversion correct? Also in the above formula, can I convert H to that natural units , since it’s a constant, while keeping k in Hz ?
Back
Top