Elwin.Martin
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So in Griffith's (ed. 2 page 37) there's an equation that says that
**pretend the h's are h-bars...I don't know Latex very well**
ih\frac{1}{\varphi}\frac{d\varphi}{dt}=-\frac{h^{2}}{2m}\frac{1}{\psi}\frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^{2}}+V
Since in this simplified case V where is a function of x alone he says that each side is equal to a constant but I'm still trying to figure out why.
I can see that the LHS is a function of t alone because he made the wave function separable and the \varphi is a function of t and the \psi is a function of x but I'm not sure why it's important. I see that if we set the equation equal to a constant the rest of the math works out nicely but I can't see what allows us to do this.
If we had say \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dz}{dt} and we set the whole thing equal to c, how would I know that y(x) = cx and z(t) = ct (they're the same constant right?) so y(x)/x=z(t)/t ?
Any direction would be great and thank you for your time,
elwin.
**pretend the h's are h-bars...I don't know Latex very well**
ih\frac{1}{\varphi}\frac{d\varphi}{dt}=-\frac{h^{2}}{2m}\frac{1}{\psi}\frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^{2}}+V
Since in this simplified case V where is a function of x alone he says that each side is equal to a constant but I'm still trying to figure out why.
I can see that the LHS is a function of t alone because he made the wave function separable and the \varphi is a function of t and the \psi is a function of x but I'm not sure why it's important. I see that if we set the equation equal to a constant the rest of the math works out nicely but I can't see what allows us to do this.
If we had say \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dz}{dt} and we set the whole thing equal to c, how would I know that y(x) = cx and z(t) = ct (they're the same constant right?) so y(x)/x=z(t)/t ?
Any direction would be great and thank you for your time,
elwin.