- #1

- 270

- 5

I mean, have you LOOKED at this? GAAAAH it's terrible, really, terrible.

The simple statement that he presents on pg. 221 - 222 is much more elegant. But one thing confuses me.

How is $$\int \vec{J} \cdot d \vec{a} = \int (\nabla \times \vec{B}) \cdot d \vec{a}$$

I see that this is an application of Stoke's Theorem, so I guess I'm asking for a clarification of what Stoke'es Theorem actually SAYS, and why it makes sense.

I'm not sure if this belongs in the classical physics section, or the math section.