Strange invocation of Taylor series

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the application of Taylor series in approximating a potential function in the context of Lagrangians. The original poster expresses confusion about the form of the Taylor expansion they encountered, which differs from the standard definition. Participants clarify that the approximation can be derived by considering the derivative of the potential at a shifted argument, specifically V(x + ε). They emphasize that the expression simplifies to a limit definition of the derivative as ε approaches zero. Ultimately, the original poster resolves their misunderstanding by recognizing the correct application of the Taylor series and the role of the derivative in the approximation.
noahcharris
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Hi all,

I was working through a chapter on Lagrangians when I cam across this:

"Using a Taylor expansion, the potential can be approximated as
## V(x+ \epsilon) \approx V(x)+\epsilon \frac{dV}{dx} ##"

Now this looks nothing like any taylor expansion I've seen before. I'm used to

## f(x) = \sum\frac{f^{(i)}(a)(x-a)^i}{i!} ##

What am I missing here?
 
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noahcharris said:
Hi all,

I was working through a chapter on Lagrangians when I cam across this:

"Using a Taylor expansion, the potential can be approximated as
## V(x+ \epsilon) \approx V(x)+\epsilon \frac{dV}{dx} ##"

Now this looks nothing like any taylor expansion I've seen before. I'm used to

## f(x) = \sum\frac{f^{(i)}(a)(x-a)^i}{i!} ##

What am I missing here?
You just need to expand the definition of the Taylor series over the first couple of terms. Remember to account for x + ε as the argument of V(x).
 
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What are the first two terms with a = x + ξ ?
 
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paisiello2 said:
What are the first two terms with a = x + ξ ?

Looks like it's ## f(x) \approx f(x + \epsilon) - f^1(x + \epsilon)\epsilon ##

Oh, ok, I see now. So the ##\frac{dV}{dx}## is really a ##\frac{dV(x + \epsilon)}{dx}## ??
 
You don't even need to use a Taylor series. Just use the definition of a derivative:
\frac{dV}{dx}= \lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac{V(x+\epsilon)-V(x)}{\epsilon}
Therefore, for smaller and smaller \epsilon, the above becomes a better and better approximation. The expression from your first post just comes from taking the above equation, dropping the limit, and isolating V(x+\epsilon).
 
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noahcharris said:
Looks like it's ## f(x) \approx f(x + \epsilon) - f^1(x + \epsilon)\epsilon ##

Oh, ok, I see now. So the ##\frac{dV}{dx}## is really a ##\frac{dV(x + \epsilon)}{dx}## ??
Sorry, do what SteamKing suggested but also take a=x as where the approximation is taken from. That should give the same answer.
 
Ok I finally figured it out. I was wrong in my previous comment. ## x \mapsto x + \epsilon ## and ## a = x ##
Thanks everyone.
 
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