- #1
kmarinas86
- 979
- 1
I cannot see how the two can be mutually inclusive. If you super impose particles with potential energies that fall off as 1/r that are homogeneously distributed through space then take the gradient of them, I hardly believe that they will result in the exactly the same thing than if you take the 1/r^2 distance for each one.
Must superposition of forces be mathematical equivalent to superposition of energies, without exception? I have a feeling they clash and contradict each other. Can someone let me know how, why? Thanks
Must superposition of forces be mathematical equivalent to superposition of energies, without exception? I have a feeling they clash and contradict each other. Can someone let me know how, why? Thanks