Surface Integral in Spherical Coordinates for Arbitrary Vector Field

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around performing a surface integral of an arbitrary vector field in spherical coordinates over a triangular surface defined by specific vertices in Cartesian coordinates. Participants are exploring the challenges of converting the problem into spherical coordinates due to the lack of spherical symmetry.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conversion of the differential area element to spherical coordinates and express confusion regarding the limits of integration. There is mention of the need for a piecewise approach due to the triangular shape of the surface.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on the difficulties of setting up the integral in spherical coordinates. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of the integration and the implications of the lack of symmetry, but no consensus has been reached on a specific method.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of integrating over a triangular surface in spherical coordinates and the potential need for different limits of integration based on the geometry of the problem.

Pengwuino
Gold Member
Messages
5,112
Reaction score
20

Homework Statement



I'm looking to do the surface integral of \oint {\vec v \cdot d\mathord{\buildrel{\lower3pt\hbox{$\scriptscriptstyle\rightharpoonup$}} <br /> \over a} } where v is arbitrary and in spherical coordinates and the surface is the triangle enclosed by the points (0,0,0) -> (0,1,0) -> (0,1,1) -> (0,0,0).

The Attempt at a Solution



Now the obvious method is to convert the differential area to cartesian giving \int_0^y {\int_0^1 {\vec v \cdot dydz} } \hat x. However, I want to know how this would be done in spherical. The limits are what confuse me, would they be something like <br /> \int_{\pi /2}^{\pi /4} {\int_0^{r\sin \theta } { - v \cdot r\sin \theta drd\theta } } \hat \theta? That can't make sense because obviously the integral is all screwed up then... Come to think of it, that area element doesn't even make sense...
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
What makes you think there is going to be any simple way to do it in spherical coordinates? There is no spherical symmetry so I doubt that it will look at all reasonable in spherical coordinates. You would have to do this "piecewise" taking different limits of integration between the different vertices of the triangle.
 
Yah I am having one of those "I know there's an easy way to do this but that doesn't mean its the only way" moments. I don't expect any thing reasonable. What do you mean taking it "piecewise"? I'm trying to solidify my understanding of integration. I know something might become disgusting to solve, but I want to at least be able to be confident about the setup.
 
Ok after some thought, I'm cool with the area element still being d\vec a = - rdrd\vec \theta. I'm guessing the problem lies with the fact that r and \theta can't be integrated, in a sense, independently in this problem and that's what you mean by the symmetry? It seems the trick with cartesian is that each coordinate can be written as a function of the others or you can hold coordinates constant while you perform integrations. With spherical, are you saying I'd need to do the integration over an infinitesimal integrated "slice" of that triangle? Am i getting warmer?
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K