I would guess no, and that's what I calculate, though I haven't really spent enough time with it to make sure I'm not making a calculation error. (When I make errors, I tend to make them in favor of what I guess, perhaps unsurprisingly).
But here is the argument. To get the proper time , one needs to integrate the differential equations of motion. From
https://www.fourmilab.ch/gravitation/orbits/ we can get the equations of motion. (Or alternatively, go to their source, which happens to be MTW's book "Gravitation").
$$\left( \frac{dr}{d\tau} \right) ^2 + \left( 1- \frac{2m}{r} \right) \left( 1+ \frac{L^2}{r^2} \right) = E^2$$
We can re-write this to solve for ##\frac{d\tau}{dr}##, and we know that r varies from 0 to 2m. So we can divide the total fall into a bunch of small intervals as r goes from 2m to zero, and find the proper time that it takes for each interval, and add them up togeter
$$\tau = \int_{r=2m..0} \frac{d\tau}{dr} dr$$
Because ##\tau## looks so much like r, this is a bit hard to read, at least for me. It's not too confusing later, but I'll rewrite it with T instead of ##\tau## to make it easier to read to get the basic setup across.
$$ T = \int_{r=2m..0} \frac{dT}{dr} \, dr$$
At this point we'll substitute in m=1/2, to make the calculation slightly easier. We need to solve the first equation for ##d\tau / dr##. We get
$$\frac{d\tau}{dr} = \sqrt{ \frac{1}{E^2 - \left(1-\frac{1}{r} \right) \left( 1 + \frac{L^2}{r^2} \right) } } $$
Because r < 2m and m=1/2, r<1, and it's helpful to re-write this as:
$$\frac{d\tau}{dr} = \sqrt{ \frac{1}{E^2 + \left(\frac{1}{r} - 1 \right) \left( 1 + \frac{L^2}{r^2} \right) } } $$
We know that (1/r)-1 is never negative, it can be zero or positive. So, how do we maximize this? Well, we can see that setting E^2>0 only makes this quantity smaller, so we set E=0, the same as we did before.
[add]. Let me clarify this a bit. 1/X is a maximum when X is a minimum. To make X a minimum, where X is a positive number, we don't add a positive number to it, and we also don't multiply it by a number greater than 1. Making E>0 adds a positive number to the denominator which I've represtend as X, and making L>0 multiplies X by a number greater than 1.
We see this by noting that setting E>0 makes each term in the integral smaller, so the infinite sum of the integral is also smaller. The same argument applies for L.
The limiting case with E=L=0 is just$$\int_{0..1} \frac{1}{\sqrt{ \frac{1}{r} - 1 }}$$
(I've done a bit of re-arranging of the signs, which is an opportunity for error, but we know we want the result to be positive).
This turns out to be finite and equal to ##\frac{\pi}{2}## according to my symbolic integration package, but I don't have any closed-form integrations for when L>0 or E>0. We can still argue, as I said previously, that by inspection the integral is maximized when E=L=0, though, as each term of the infinite sum is maximized, which makes the infinite sum (the integral) itself a maximum.
This is not striclty related, but there is a simper argument that leads to a possibly more intuitive though less rigorous explanation. Light orbits a black hole at the photon sphere, at r=3M. Inside the photon sphere, one needs to apply thrust to hold station, there is no possible orbit. Furthermore, if one attempts to orbit the black hole in the photon sphere, one needs MORE thrust to hold station than if one stays still with no angular motion. This counter-intiutive fact about orbiting inside the photon sphere is mentioned in a few papers (that I don't have the references handy for), and in Kip Thorne's book, "Black holes and Time Warps".