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Can we obtain temperatures below absolute zero i.e. 0 Kelvin?
The discussion revolves around the possibility of achieving temperatures below absolute zero (0 Kelvin) and the implications of negative absolute temperatures in statistical mechanics. Participants explore theoretical concepts, thermodynamic laws, and practical limitations related to temperature and energy.
Participants generally disagree on the feasibility of achieving temperatures below absolute zero, with some supporting the idea of negative temperatures while others maintain that absolute zero is an insurmountable limit. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of negative temperatures and their practical applications.
Participants express uncertainty about the definitions and implications of temperature in different contexts, particularly in relation to statistical mechanics and thermodynamics. There are also mentions of practical limitations in achieving negative temperatures and the challenges in applying these concepts to real-world systems.
First Question. This negative temperature concept appears to be limited to "spin" degree of freedom systems--is this correct ? Second Question. Since a spin system with negative absolue temperature should be hotter than a positive temperature system, would you predict that the outcome of linking two quantum spin engines ( one with negative absolute temperature, and the second with positive) would be an engine with efficiency > 1 ?ZapperZ said:If you look at how "temperature" is defined within statistical mechanics, you'll see that, using the partition function methodology, there CAN be situations where you can get a negative absolute temperature. While this is not a system under equilibrium, you can still get such temperature based on an inverse population of states.
http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/ParticleAndNuclear/neg_temperature.htmlZz.
If you mean 'more energy out than in, then the answer is a definite 'no'. That would be a perpetual motion machine.Rade said:would be an engine with efficiency > 1 ?
Rade said:First Question. This negative temperature concept appears to be limited to "spin" degree of freedom systems--is this correct ?
Second Question. Since a spin system with negative absolue temperature should be hotter than a positive temperature system, would you predict that the outcome of linking two quantum spin engines ( one with negative absolute temperature, and the second with positive) would be an engine with efficiency > 1 ?
There's only so much energy in the universe, though. Doesn't that also imply that there's a limit to how much you can channel into heating something?lalbatros said:There is no upper bound in energy and therefore no upper bound on temperature.
There's only so much energy in the universe, though.
ZapperZ said:It doesn't have to be exclusively only for spin systems. It just happens that this would be the easiest system to illustrate.
Sure! Under certain non-equilibrium situation, you can violate the 2nd law. There's nothing here that contradicts thermodynamics since this all came out of thermodynamics predictions. However, such a system doesn't last very long, and if you calculate the Helmholtz free energy out of such a system, you'll be hard pressed to use it to do any work (a fact that most quacks tend to overlook).
Zz.
Rade said:First Question. This negative temperature concept appears to be limited to "spin" degree of freedom systems--is this correct ?
Second Question. Since a spin system with negative absolue temperature should be hotter than a positive temperature system, would you predict that the outcome of linking two quantum spin engines ( one with negative absolute temperature, and the second with positive) would be an engine with efficiency > 1 ?
lalbatros said:Let's put two systems in thermal contact.
One (A) with a positive temperature.
A second (B) with a negative temperature.
How can we predict the heat flux?
I could imagine heat going from B to A simply because the number of microstates of A+B could be higher so. Indeed, less energy in B would mean more microstates for B and eventually also for A+B.
Is it possible that heat goes from cold (B) to hot (A) ?
Is it compatible with the second law ?
Michel