Understanding Algebras: The Relationship Between Rings and Modules

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"Let R be a commutative ring. We say that M is an algebra over R, or that M is an R-algebra if M is an R-module that is also a ring (not necessarily commutative), and the ring and module operations are compatible, i.e., r(xy) = (rx)y = x(ry) for all x, y \in M and r \in R."

I'm not really sure why the second equality is true, because it implies commutativity and the definition tells us that an R-module is not necessarily commutative, right?

Thank you in advance
 
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No, it does NOT imply commutativity because x and y are not commuted. What is says is that it doesn't matter if you multiply the real number "r" by x or by y before you multiply the two module members.
 
HallsofIvy said:
No, it does NOT imply commutativity because x and y are not commuted. What is says is that it doesn't matter if you multiply the real number "r" by x or by y before you multiply the two module members.

Thanks, but I cannot see any ring/module operation that would permit that. We know that associativity and distributivity hold (and of course others too, but they aren't related to this case). But I can't see how these basic operations would imply what you said.
 
The definition does that ##rx = xr##, but that's for ##r\in R## and ##x\in M##. The definition does not state that ##xy = yx## for ##x,y\in M##. So ##M## is not commutative in that sense.
 
micromass said:
The definition does that ##rx = xr##, but that's for ##r\in R## and ##x\in M##. The definition does not state that ##xy = yx## for ##x,y\in M##. So ##M## is not commutative in that sense.

Thanks a lot.
 
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