SammyS
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No voodoo here.flyingpig said:Guys please come back...
Okay looking through my book again, I went back to the definition of derivative.
f_y (0,0) = \lim_{h\to0} \frac{f(0,h+0) - f(0,0)}{h} = \lim_{h\to0} \frac{h - 0}{h} = \lim_{h\to0} 1 = 1
Alright, clearly there is some voodoo going on here.
How come I have to go back to the definition of the limit to get this?
The question was raised by BruceW as to whether this limit exists. Is the limit the same as h→0+ as it is for h→0- ?
f(x,y) = \sqrt[3]{x^2 + y^3}
Therefore, \displaystyle f(0,y) = \sqrt[3]{ y^3}=y\,. This works fine for odd roots, not for even roots.
Thus for this function, f(0,h) = h, whether h is positive or negative.
I realize that this doesn't answer the larger question you asked, but I though I'd clear up this little detail. Yes, holding x fixed at a value of zero gives derivative w.r.t. y, which when evaluated at y=0 is equal to 1.
I hope to answer your question about 'voodoo' soon - unless I'm beaten to it.