1. Aug 27, 2012 #1

   dEdt

   

   In classical mechanics, if there's an explicit time dependence in the Hamiltonian of a system, then it won't be equal to the system's total energy. Why isn't this true in quantum mechanics?

    

   dEdt, Aug 27, 2012
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3. Aug 28, 2012 #2

   mfb

   

   Insights Author

   2017 Award

   Staff: Mentor

   Can you show an example of this?
   
   If the time-dependence in the Hamiltonian is just some external potential, it should be fine. And I do not see how you get different time-dependent expressions in quantum mechanics - the particles and fundamental interactions have to stay the same.

    

   mfb, Aug 28, 2012
4. Aug 29, 2012 #3

   dEdt

   

   No, I can't. I just confused myself. Thanks.

    

   dEdt, Aug 29, 2012

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