1. Aug 27, 2012 #1

   dEdt

   

   In classical mechanics, if there's an explicit time dependence in the Hamiltonian of a system, then it won't be equal to the system's total energy. Why isn't this true in quantum mechanics?

    

   dEdt, Aug 27, 2012
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength
   • • Exciting silicon nanoparticles
   • • How many ways can you arrange 128 tennis balls? Researchers solve an apparently impossible problem
3. Aug 28, 2012 #2

   mfb

   

   Insights Author

   2016 Award

   Staff: Mentor

   Can you show an example of this?
   
   If the time-dependence in the Hamiltonian is just some external potential, it should be fine. And I do not see how you get different time-dependent expressions in quantum mechanics - the particles and fundamental interactions have to stay the same.

    

   mfb, Aug 28, 2012
4. Aug 29, 2012 #3

   dEdt

   

   No, I can't. I just confused myself. Thanks.

    

   dEdt, Aug 29, 2012

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in