Trajectory of a particle under the given force

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A particle in the xy-plane is subjected to a force attracting it towards the origin, described by the equation $$\vec{f} = - \frac{k^{2} m}{r^{6}}\vec{r}$$. The discussion revolves around deriving the trajectory of the particle, starting from position (a,0) with a specific speed. Participants clarify the nature of the equations involved, noting that the trajectory equation $$\vec{r} = a \cos \Theta$$ is a vector representation, and the Binet equation presented is actually a form of Newton's equation. There is debate about the correctness of the equations and the necessity for proper derivation. The conversation emphasizes the importance of accurately distinguishing between vector and scalar quantities in the equations.
Abhishek11235
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A particle of mass m in xy plane is attracted toward the origin with the force
$$\begin{align}\vec{f} = - \frac{k^{2} m}{r^{6}}\vec{r}\end{align}$$ where ##\vec r## is position vector of particle measured from origin. If it starts at position ##(a,0)## with speed $$v=\frac{k}{\sqrt{2} a^{2}}$$ perpendicular to x-axis show that trajectory of given particle is
$$\vec r= a cosΘ $$
The equation I got is Binet equation which I can't solve for r. Thanks for help

The Binet equation I got is:

$$\ddot r - \vec r w^2 = \vec f$$

Here f is same as (##1##)
 
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Hello Abhishek, :welcome:
Abhishek11235 said:
The equation I got is Binet equation
Pity you don't post it: then I could compare it with mine, which looks reasonable. I can't solve it offhand either, but when I know the answer I can check that it satisfies the equation :rolleyes: (didn't check the constants, though)
 
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Couple of clarifications needed.
1. In:

$$\vec r=acosΘ$$

The left hand side is a vector. Is that intentional? If so, what is the vector on the right hand side

2. Similarly, in

##\ddot r-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

The first term on the left is not a vector, the other two are.
 
1. No. ##|\vec r| = a\cos\theta## is the r-component of a polar vector. The right hand side is a scalar. At ##t=0## you have ##\vec r = (a,0)\ ## (both in polar and in cartesian)

2. No again. The double derivative of a time dependent vector is a vector, in this case an acceleration vector ##\ddot{\vec r} \equiv \vec a## .

You edited in your result for the Binet equation. Good (it looks simple). But given the expression for ##\vec F##, I find it hard to believe. Can you show the derivation ?

(edit: this looks more like a warbled Newton equation if you ask me -- see here
and a bit further down that link also has an example with ##|\vec F|\propto r^{-3}##, so just follow the same path ... :cool: )
 
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Chandra Prayaga said:
Couple of clarifications needed.
1. In:

$$\vec r=acosΘ$$

The left hand side is a vector. Is that intentional? If so, what is the vector on the right hand side

2. Similarly, in

##\ddot r-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

The first term on the left is not a vector, the other two are.
No. It is my typing mistake.
It should be ##\ddot {\vec r}-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

And for other it is:
##r= acos\theta##
 
@Chandra Prayaga : sorry I mistakenly took you for the thread starter
@Abhishek11235: that's not Binet, that's Newton ! Benefit from the 'hints' in post #4 :smile:
 
For simple comparison, I think the same thought process can be followed as a block slides down a hill, - for block down hill, simple starting PE of mgh to final max KE 0.5mv^2 - comparing PE1 to max KE2 would result in finding the work friction did through the process. efficiency is just 100*KE2/PE1. If a mousetrap car travels along a flat surface, a starting PE of 0.5 k th^2 can be measured and maximum velocity of the car can also be measured. If energy efficiency is defined by...

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