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Studying from Love's Treatise on elasticity I am having some difficulties.
For an isotropic body under the influence of a force within a finite volume T equiations of equillibrium via Hooke's law are given by :
(\lambda + \mu )(\frac{\partial}{\partial x},\frac{\partial}{\partial y},\frac{\partial}{\partial z})\Delta + \mu\nabla^2(u,v,w) + \rho (X,Y,Z) = 0
Displacement vector field (u,v,w) and applied force (X,Y,Z) can be made, respectively,via Helmholtz decomposition into a curl free scalar field \phi,\Phi and a div free vector field (F,G,H) , (L,N,M).
Plugging these relations into the equilibrium equation yields 4 equations,of which one that combines the scalar fields is:
(\lambda + \mu )\nabla^2\phi + \rho \Phi=0
Now comes the difficult part (bear with me :) ):
The scalar component of the force (X,Y,Z) can be written :
\Phi=-\frac{1}{4\pi}\int\int\int(X'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial x}+Y'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial y}+Z'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial z})dx'dy'dz'
Where X',Y',Z' denote values of force within T and r is the distance from x,y,z.
My question is why?I don't understand the way why we can write the \Phi via the aforementioned integral.
For an isotropic body under the influence of a force within a finite volume T equiations of equillibrium via Hooke's law are given by :
(\lambda + \mu )(\frac{\partial}{\partial x},\frac{\partial}{\partial y},\frac{\partial}{\partial z})\Delta + \mu\nabla^2(u,v,w) + \rho (X,Y,Z) = 0
Displacement vector field (u,v,w) and applied force (X,Y,Z) can be made, respectively,via Helmholtz decomposition into a curl free scalar field \phi,\Phi and a div free vector field (F,G,H) , (L,N,M).
Plugging these relations into the equilibrium equation yields 4 equations,of which one that combines the scalar fields is:
(\lambda + \mu )\nabla^2\phi + \rho \Phi=0
Now comes the difficult part (bear with me :) ):
The scalar component of the force (X,Y,Z) can be written :
\Phi=-\frac{1}{4\pi}\int\int\int(X'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial x}+Y'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial y}+Z'\frac{\partial r^-^1}{\partial z})dx'dy'dz'
Where X',Y',Z' denote values of force within T and r is the distance from x,y,z.
My question is why?I don't understand the way why we can write the \Phi via the aforementioned integral.