Bashyboy
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"As (x,y) \rightarrow (0,0), r \rightarrow," is a fact that I am given, in order to solve a problem. I simply want to know if I properly understand why this fact is true.
I know that x = rcos \theta and y=rsin \theta. If I were to look at the individual limits, as x \rightarrow 0 and y \rightarrow 0, then I see each relation becomes 0 = rcos \theta and 0=rsin \theta. Now, as x and y approach 0, there is no angle that \theta approaches that make rcos \theta and rsin \theta simultaneously zero; hence, it must be that r approaches 0 as to make each expression zero simultaneously.
In summary, \lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)}~(x+y) = lim_{r \rightarrow 0} ~ (rcos \theta + rsin \theta).
Are my arguments correct?
I know that x = rcos \theta and y=rsin \theta. If I were to look at the individual limits, as x \rightarrow 0 and y \rightarrow 0, then I see each relation becomes 0 = rcos \theta and 0=rsin \theta. Now, as x and y approach 0, there is no angle that \theta approaches that make rcos \theta and rsin \theta simultaneously zero; hence, it must be that r approaches 0 as to make each expression zero simultaneously.
In summary, \lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)}~(x+y) = lim_{r \rightarrow 0} ~ (rcos \theta + rsin \theta).
Are my arguments correct?