Understanding Angular Momentum and Torque in Rotating Objects

AI Thread Summary
A uniform rod rotating about its longitudinal axis has an angular momentum vector aligned with that axis. When a perpendicular force is applied, it induces a torque that alters the angular momentum, resulting in a change in direction. This torque does not simply cause the rod to kick up or down; it also leads to precession around a new angular momentum vector. The rod will not abruptly change direction but will wobble as it adjusts to the new angular momentum configuration. The interaction of the applied force and the resulting torque is crucial in understanding the dynamics of rotating objects.
SprucerMoose
Messages
62
Reaction score
0
Hey guys,

If I have a uniform rod rotating about its longitudinal axis of symmetry in space it will have an angular momentum vector that is colinear to this axis. If I now apply a force directly perpendicular to this (as shown in attachment) it will induce a torque that is perpendicular to the angular momentum vector. The centre of mass of the object must accelerate in the direction of the applied force and the torque will cause a change in angular momentum.

My question is will this torque just cause this rod to kick up or down, i.e. the angular momentum vector follows the direction of the torque vector and/or will the rod also attempt to rotate about axis 2 in the diagram? If it does rotate about axis 2, where does the torque come from to change the perpendicular angular momentum vector.

torque question.jpg
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm assuming you mean the applied force F is impulsive. Let the initial angular momentum be L1, pointing to the right. The torque resulting from F will cause a change in angular momentum, adding a vertical component ΔL. The new total angular momentum will be the vector sum L2 = L1 + ΔL. As a result the rod is no longer rotating about its axis of symmetry. At the instant the force was applied, the rod was pointing directly to the right. It will not suddenly change direction, but rather wobble (precess) about the direction of L2.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top