Understanding Mappings between Quotient Rings

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Homework Statement


If I was to map elements in R/A to R/B via the function p.

So p:R/A -> R/B

Can I assume there are no elements in R/B before the mapping?

Or is it more there are elements in R/B already before the mapping. However during the mapping, I highlight each element in R/B that was mapped by p from R/A. After the mapping has finished, the highlighted elements in R/B is the image of p. However if the domain and codomains are infinite then the mappings will never finish.
 
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What? There are exactly as many elements in R/B as there are elements in R/B. A 'mapping' does not suddenly 'make elements appear'. Functions are not processes that you switch on, wait for something to happen, and then it terminates like a machine in a factory (perhaps you're taking the metpahorical 'black box' description of functions too litereally).
 
So my last paragraph is correct?
 
No, your last paragraph doesn't make anysense either. Talking of maps as 'never finishing' doesn't make any sense at all. There is no time 'before' the map nor 'after' the map. This doesn't make any sense. R/A is a quotient ring, R/B is a quotient ring. The existence of maps between them does not affect thwm in the slightest.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

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