Chalnoth said:
... The only apparent non-locality comes in with the collapse of the wavefunction. But since there is no wavefunction collapse in the many worlds interpretation, the paradox is trivially solved.
Please correct me if I’m wrong, but the many worlds interpretation is one of several interpretations of QM, right? Although MWI is the most supported by (60%?) leading scientist, right?
I know you explain things
very well, so if you could explain MWI in the context of EPR (
without math), I would be most thankful.
Take this practical EPR experiment using Bell inequality:
In Geneva 1997 Bell test experiments showed that light sent in fiber optic cables, on a distances over 10 kilometers, did not destroy the entanglement of the photons. The Bell test experiment was successful.
To a layman as me, this means that the photons had spin (up/down, left/right, ect) and since they were entangled, they must possesses the opposite spin of their entangled 'twin'. Which spin the photons actually have is, of course, completely unknown and 100% random before the measurement takes place.
When one entangled photon is measured, several kilometers from its 'twin', the other photon instantaneously 'obtains' the opposite spin. Instantaneously means faster than light, but the outcome is pure random, and therefore do not violate information FTL.
Bell's theorem shows that there are no local hidden variables involved (i.e. the spin of the photons where set from the start by hidden variables, before the measurement).
So, how do we explain this 'phenomena' in MWI, to get rid of nonlocality? Is it just a pure coincidence that you, me and everybody else in this forum
always happens to live in one of the MWI branches where the outcome of the Bell test experiments is what it is...? Even repeated a hundred thousand times, or more...?
For a guy that doesn’t understand the mathematics behind MWI, this is as close to science fiction you ever could come – with Nobel laureates (
Richard Feynman) and the geniuses (
Stephen Hawking) as promoters.
To me, nonlocality seems like 'kindergarten' compared to MWI and the Universal Wave Function...??
And when Wikipedia 'explains' MWI like this...
"The quantum-mechanical "Schrödinger's cat" paradox according to the many-worlds interpretation. In this interpretation every event is a branch point; the cat is both alive and dead, even before the box is opened, but the "alive" and "dead" cats are in different branches of the universe, both of which are equally real, but which cannot interact with each other."
...I feel true sadness for physics & science (
unless this isn’t a giant mistake by Wikipedia) because this means we live in a deterministic world, with 'non-deterministic' branches, and the rest is a mess.
Has anyone done a
real calculation of how many
real branches there might be out there in the Multiverse? How many particles, energy, etc...? In 13.8 billion years there’s a lot of branching to do for every particle, and branched particle, and branched branched particle, and so on...
Please, help me with this. Everything in 'this branch' tells me Richard Feynman & Stephen Hawking
are right and I
am wrong, but I can’t understand how this works in the
real world...??
Sir Roger Penrose is also an extremely intelligent man, and he agrees with Hawking that QM applied to the universe implies MWI, although he considers the current lack of a successful theory of quantum gravity negates the claimed universality of conventional QM...
This saves my nerves for awhile.
Finally, no offense Chalnoth, is your solution to the 'problem' really 'solid'? Not that my speculations ever is going to work, but if we know there is a inconsistency between GR & QM, and we have repeatable physical experiments, can we then just say – this doesn’t matter according to one of these theories – when we know one of them must be wrong/incomplete (or both)...?