Understanding the Convergence of Fourier Series for Periodic Functions

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of Fourier series for periodic functions, specifically focusing on the conditions under which the Fourier series converges uniformly and pointwise for functions in the space C^1 on the torus. Participants seek to understand the underlying proofs and definitions related to this theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests a proof of the theorem stating that if a function f is in C^1 on the torus, then its Fourier series converges uniformly and pointwise.
  • Another participant suggests consulting Folland's "Fourier analysis and applications" for a relevant theorem.
  • There is confusion regarding the notation C^1(T), with some participants questioning whether it refers to complex functions and the nature of the domain T.
  • Clarifications are provided that C^1 refers to functions with one continuous derivative, and T likely denotes periodicity, possibly on the unit circle.
  • One participant mentions that non-periodic functions could lead to examples where Fourier series do not converge, citing a specific function with a continuous derivative at zero.
  • Another participant corrects a previous statement about a function, indicating that the correct example has a continuous derivative at zero.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding regarding the notation and implications of C^1 and T. There is no consensus on the proof of the theorem, and multiple interpretations of the definitions are present.

Contextual Notes

Participants have differing interpretations of the notation C^1 and the domain T, leading to some uncertainty about the conditions under which the Fourier series converges.

Swimmingly!
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Hey. I'm looking for a proof of:
Theorem: If [itex]f \in C^1(\mathbb{T})[/itex], then the Fourier series converges to f uniformly (and hence also pointwise.)

I have looked around for it, googled, etc, but I only found proofs which used theorem they did not prove. (Or I misunderstood what they said.)
I'd really like to truly understand why they converge, be it uniformly or pointwise. If anyone could either link me to a proof or do it, it'd be great. Thanks.
 
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Check Folland's "Fourier analysis and applications", Theorem 2.5
 
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Sorry, I don't know what C^1(T) is. Are these complex functions? And what domain is T?
 
micromass said:
Check Folland's "Fourier analysis and applications", Theorem 2.5
Completely answered my question. Thanks a lot!

brmath said:
Sorry, I don't know what C^1(T) is. Are these complex functions? And what domain is T?
C^k is the set of functions such that: There exist continuous derivatives of 0th, 1st, 2nd... and kth order.
C^1(T) probably means that f is periodic of period 2π or something of the sorts. The number of senseful meanings is not that big.
 
Thanks Swimmingly. Then[tex]C^1[/tex] would be real functions that have just one continuous derivative and you guess T means they are periodic. I would guess if they are not periodic one could construct examples where the Fourier series wouldn't converge at all. There is always the famous [tex]{x^2sin1/x}[/tex] which has exactly one continuous derivative at 0.
 
Last edited:
Bold faced T usually refers to a torus - in this case I assume the one dimensional torus (which is the circle, equivalently we are discussing periodic functions on the real line)
 
Office_Shredder- Thanks for the clarification. He most likely meant periodic functions on the real line. I personally am more than willing to consider functions on the unit circle -- quite often it helps.

Also, for all, please substitute [tex]x^3sin1/x[/tex] for [tex]x^2sin1/x[/tex] as per my previous post. The first does have one continuous derivative at x = 0. The second has only a discontinuous derivative at x = 0.
 

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