Understanding the Divergence of Series 1/(nln(n)): A Quick Explanation

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why does the series 1/(nln(n)) diverge? I thought it converged since the limit goes to 0.
 
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No, the SEQUENCE

\left\{ \frac{1}{n\ln n} \right\}

converges because the limit of the terms go to 0.

However, the SERIES

\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n\ln n}

diverges using the integral test.
 
For the series

\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n

the condition that

\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 0

is necessary for convergence, however it is not sufficient. That is, satisfying the limit condition is not enough to conclude that the series converges.
 
I see, so

1/n will diverge since p <= 1 and 1/nln(n) is smaller than that, so it will converge as well--is that a correct comparison test?
 
No, it's not. if an converges and bn< an then bn converges. If an diverges and bn> an then bn diverges. If an diverges and bn< an, you don't have any information as to whether bn converges or not.
As rs1n said, use the integral test.
 
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