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I'm slightly confused with the following function so I was wondering if anybody could give me some hints as to the next step.
A function f is defined as
<br /> f:\mathbb{C} \longrightarrow \mathbb{C} \\<br />
<br /> ~~z \longmapsto |z|<br />
where
<br /> \mathbb{C} = (\mathbb{C},+)<br />
assuming the function is a homomorphism, I've gone on to find
<br /> \rm{Ker}(f) = \{0\}<br />
<br /> \rm{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}<br />
by the first isomorphism theorem I would have made the following conclusion(this part doesn't make sense to me):
<br /> \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )<br />
But firstly
<br /> (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )<br />
is not a group since there is no inverse element, and secondly since Ker(f) = the trivial group
<br /> \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{C}, + )<br />
Could somebody give me some pointers please?
A function f is defined as
<br /> f:\mathbb{C} \longrightarrow \mathbb{C} \\<br />
<br /> ~~z \longmapsto |z|<br />
where
<br /> \mathbb{C} = (\mathbb{C},+)<br />
assuming the function is a homomorphism, I've gone on to find
<br /> \rm{Ker}(f) = \{0\}<br />
<br /> \rm{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}<br />
by the first isomorphism theorem I would have made the following conclusion(this part doesn't make sense to me):
<br /> \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )<br />
But firstly
<br /> (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )<br />
is not a group since there is no inverse element, and secondly since Ker(f) = the trivial group
<br /> \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{C}, + )<br />
Could somebody give me some pointers please?
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