Oxymoron
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If X and Y are two connected topological spaces then so is X \otimes Y.
I want to understand the proof of this theorem but I am having some difficulties. Even though we went over it in class, it is still unclear to me.
The professor constructed this continuous function:
f:X\otimes Y \rightarrow \{0,1\}
Where \{0,1\} is a discrete topological space. Then he shows that f is constant. He then claimed that \{x\} \otimes Y is homeomorphic with Y hence this subspace (\{x\}\otimes Y) is connected - since Y is.
Now this does not make sense to me and I wouldn't be suprised if it didn't make sense to any of you. If you think you have a better way of explaining the proof (it doesn't have to be this one) then I would appreciate the effort.
Im not sure exactly why one would begin by setting up a continuous function which maps points in the product space X \otimes Y to either 0 or 1 in the discrete topological space, then claim that the function constant - then go on to show that \{x\} \otimes Y is homeomorphic to Y.??
I want to understand the proof of this theorem but I am having some difficulties. Even though we went over it in class, it is still unclear to me.
The professor constructed this continuous function:
f:X\otimes Y \rightarrow \{0,1\}
Where \{0,1\} is a discrete topological space. Then he shows that f is constant. He then claimed that \{x\} \otimes Y is homeomorphic with Y hence this subspace (\{x\}\otimes Y) is connected - since Y is.
Now this does not make sense to me and I wouldn't be suprised if it didn't make sense to any of you. If you think you have a better way of explaining the proof (it doesn't have to be this one) then I would appreciate the effort.
Im not sure exactly why one would begin by setting up a continuous function which maps points in the product space X \otimes Y to either 0 or 1 in the discrete topological space, then claim that the function constant - then go on to show that \{x\} \otimes Y is homeomorphic to Y.??