Understanding the Simple Proof of sin^2θ = 1-cos^2θ in Trigonometry

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on understanding the proof of the trigonometric identity sin²θ = 1 - cos²θ, specifically the step where (r² - x²)/r² is simplified. The confusion arises from the misconception that r² in the numerator cancels out directly with r² in the denominator, leading to an incorrect interpretation. The correct approach involves factoring the numerator to reveal that (r² - x²)/r² simplifies to 1 - (x²/r²). This clarification emphasizes the importance of proper fraction manipulation in algebra. Overall, the explanation helps clarify the steps necessary to understand the identity correctly.
claytonh4
Messages
79
Reaction score
0
Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
claytonh4 said:
Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.
 
claytonh4 said:

Homework Statement



Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:


Homework Equations



sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The Attempt at a Solution



The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
(r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}
 
Mark44 said:
Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.

Oh ok I see. So if I want to employ that train of thought I need to expand the problem so it will work? Thank you for your help, that makes more sense now.
 
azizlwl said:
r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
(r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}

Ok that makes more sense. I think I was looking at it too simplistically. When I saw the 1 in the equation, I wanted to try to cancel, but I didn't account for dividing there. Thanks for your help.
 
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}
 
Simon Bridge said:
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}

Thank you! I think that's an excellent example of how that dividing property works.
 
As the Heart of Gold doors' say, "pleased to be of service."
 

Similar threads

Back
Top