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If I have random variable, P ~ U(1,2), am I correct in thinking that xP ~ U(1,2) also ? (where x is some constant), or does the range change?
Thanks.
Thanks.
EnumaElish said:Since P is U(1, 2), Prob(P < p) = p - 1. Note Prob(P < 1) = 1 - 1 = 0 and Prob(P < 2) = 2 - 1 = 1.
Assume x > 0, then Prob(xP < p) = Prob(P < p/x) = ...
Does this help?