Understanding Wave Concept: Troubleshooting a Time Gap

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the confusion regarding the instantaneous transmission of forces between particles in a wave. It argues that while disturbances at point A affect point B immediately, the wave itself takes time to propagate through the medium to point D. The key point is that forces are not felt instantaneously; they propagate at a finite speed, specifically the speed of light. This understanding clarifies the apparent time gap between the disturbance and the wave reaching the final point. Ultimately, wave propagation is governed by the finite speed of force transmission, not instantaneity.
sadhu
Messages
155
Reaction score
0
I have got a trouble with wave concept

suppose wave is passing through a medium ( let it ,just started)

suppose there are four points in the medium (particles)
A,B,C,D

as soon as A is disturbed even by an infinitesimally small distance , B experiences a forces (forces act instantaneously ) . time taken =0;
same happens from B to C
then C to D


time in each case is 0
so net time is 0;

but wave takes some time to reach D, I can't understand why that time gap is coming .as every thing is happening instantly.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Why are you assuming the force from one particle is instantaneously felt by the next?

The fact is that the force is not instantaneously felt by the second particle.
 
if i remember correctly, force is limited at the same speed as light
 
that means every wave should have a speed of light
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top