Unfamiliar formulation of Stokes Problem

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The discussion revolves around the formulation of the Stokes problem in the escript Python FEM software, which presents a unique equation for calculating the velocity field and pressure of an incompressible fluid. The user is confused about the absence of the traditional Laplacian operator in the provided formulation and seeks clarification on its equivalence to the expected form. Key points include the relationship between the viscous stress tensor and the rate of strain tensor, as well as the divergence of the stress tensor leading to the Laplacian of velocity. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding tensor operations and their implications in fluid dynamics. Overall, the user is looking for a derivation or explanation to better apply the software's formulation.
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Hello, I'm trying out the escript python FEM software package which is so far rather impressive, if for no other reason than the developers have included a Stokes Flow solver. The problem I'm having, however, is that they have formulated the problem in a manner I have not encountered before, nor can seem to make it "work" in the manner I would expect it to. In particular, we have from from section 6.1 of the users manual:

We want to calculate the velocity field v and pressure p of an incompressible fluid. They are given as the solution of the Stokes problem
-\left( \eta \left( v_{i,j} + v_{j,i} \right) \right)_{,j} + p_{,i} = f_i + \sigma_{ij,j}
where f_i defines an internal force and \sigma_{ij,j} is an initial stress. The viscosity may weakly depend on pressure and velocity. If relevant we will use the notation \eta\left(v,p\right)to express this dependency.

My basic problem is that I have not encountered what would normally be the Laplacian on the LHS of the above statement. That is, I would typically expect Stokes problem to be stated as
\Delta v - \nabla p = f
which, components aside, does not seem to be an equivalent statement. Due to my application, the inclusion of the initial condition \sigma_{ij,j} is unimportant, and conservation of mass (\nabla\cdot v=0) is assumed in both cases.

So, can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong, or where I might find a derivation of the quoted formulation so that I can actually apply it?

Thanks!
 
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See the explanation in section 1.5.
 
Thanks, but I suppose I should clarify...

The problem I'm having is not one of indices vs. operator, what I'm failing to see is how
\nabla\cdot\left(\eta\left(\nabla v + \nabla^T v \right)\right)
is equivalent (in some sense?) to
\eta\Delta v
That is, I'm assuming that they mean that \nabla^T denotes the adjoint to \nabla, but even then that doesn't seem to add up...

Cheers!
 
the.drizzle said:
Thanks, but I suppose I should clarify...

The problem I'm having is not one of indices vs. operator, what I'm failing to see is how
\nabla\cdot\left(\eta\left(\nabla v + \nabla^T v \right)\right)
is equivalent (in some sense?) to
\eta\Delta v
That is, I'm assuming that they mean that \nabla^T denotes the adjoint to \nabla, but even then that doesn't seem to add up...

Cheers!

\nabla^Tv denotes the TRANSPOSE of \nabla v

If you sum them both and divide by 2, you get a symmetrical tensor called the "rate of stain tensor", let's call it ε

For an incompressilble flow (\nabla · v = 0) the law that relates the "viscous stress tensor σ" (I think this one is also called deviatoric stress tensor) to the "rate of strain tensor ε" is:

σ= 2η·ε

Now, in the equation of conservation of momentum, σ doesn't appear as such, but through its divergence. If you calculate its divergence (or just look it up, Navier-Poisson's Law), you get to the conclusion:

\nabla · σ = - \nabla \times (η\nabla \times v)

Since η is constant you can get it out of the curl expression. Applying this property of operators you finally get to the laplacian of v

\nabla \times \nabla \times \vec{v} = \nabla (\nabla \cdot \vec{v}) - \nabla^2 \vec{v}

Hope I could clarify!
 
Brilliant, thank you!

:-)
 
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