Uniform convergence and improper integration

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in real analysis concerning uniform convergence and improper integration. The original poster presents a scenario involving functions defined on the interval [1, +∞) and seeks to prove a limit involving integrals of these functions under certain conditions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish the uniform convergence of a sequence of integrals and questions whether this convergence can be proven directly. They express uncertainty about the uniform convergence of the sequence of functions.
  • One participant suggests a method to prove uniform convergence by constructing bounds and leveraging properties of the functions involved, while also clarifying the conditions necessary for the proof.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with one providing a detailed approach to proving uniform convergence. The original poster acknowledges the helpfulness of this insight, indicating a productive exchange of ideas. However, there is no explicit consensus on the final resolution of the problem.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes considerations of Riemann integrability and the implications of bounding functions, as well as the need for careful selection of parameters in the proof. There are also references to specific inequalities and conditions that must be satisfied for the convergence to hold.

boombaby
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Homework Statement


Suppose g and f_n are defined on [1,+infinity), are Riamann-integrable on [t,T] whenever 1<=t<T<+infinity. |f_n|<=g, f_n->f uniformly on every compact subset of [1,+infinity), and
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{1} g(x)dx<\infty[/tex].
Prove that
[tex]lim_{n->\infty} \int^{\infty}_{1} f_{n}(x)dx =\int^{\infty}_{1} f(x)dx[/tex]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


If I let [tex]h_{n}(u)=\int^{u}_{1} f_{n}(x)dx[/tex], then [tex]lim_{n->\infty} h_{n}(u)=\int^{u}_{1} f(x)dx=h(u)[/tex] for each u in [1,+infinity). it is equivalent to prove that [tex]lim_{n->\infty}lim_{u->\infty} h_{n}(u)=lim_{u->\infty}lim_{n->\infty} h_n(u)[/tex]. This is true if h_n converges uniformly to h on [1,+infinity). This is where I got stuck. Actually, I'm not sure if h_n indeed converges uniformly...Or, is there any other way to prove it? Any hint? Thanks a lot!
 
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Well. I think you can prove uniform convergence of [itex]h_n[/itex] directly.
You want to show that [itex]\forall \varepsilon >0: \exist N>0[/itex] such that whenever n>N [itex]|h_n(u)-h(u)|\leq\varepsilon\quad \forall u\in[1,\infty)[/itex], right?
First pick [itex]u_0\in[1,\infty)[/itex] such that [itex]\int_{u_0}^\infty{dxg(x)}\leq \varepsilon/4[/itex]. Then pick an N with [itex]|f_n(x)-f(x)|\leq\frac{\varepsilon}{2(u_0-1)}[/itex] for all n>N and [itex]x\in[1,u_0][/itex] This N should do the job.

You can write for any u
[tex] |h_n(u)-h(u)|=\left|\int_1^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|\leq\left|\int_1^{u_0\wedge u}{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|+\chi_{\{u_0<u\}}\left|\int_{u_0}^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|[/tex]

For n>N the first term is clearly bounded by [itex]\varepsilon/2[/itex]. The second term is only there if [itex]u>u_0[/itex]. In this case you can use [itex]|f_n(x)|<=g(x)[/itex] for all x (which implies [itex]|f(x)|<=g(x)[/itex] so
[tex] \left|\int_{u_0}^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|\leq 2\int_{u_0}^u{dxg(x)}\leq 2\int_{u_0}^\infty{dxg(x)}\leq\varepsilon/2[/tex]
where the last inequality holds by the choice of [itex]u_0[/itex].
 
Last edited:
This is brilliant, thanks!
u_0 is exactly what I didn't get! Thanks again!:)
 
boombaby said:
This is brilliant, thanks!
Don't be exaggerating:smile:
 

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