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Hello everybody,
I am currently studying QFT on curved spacetime and I got puzzled about the question:
Are Unruh and Hawking effect just the same by invoking the equivalence principle?
I found ambiguous statements and this paper contributed to it. http://arxiv.org/pdf/1102.5564v2.pdf
Is anybody here who knows details, can refer any good paper, argumentation?
Thanks in advance!
I am currently studying QFT on curved spacetime and I got puzzled about the question:
Are Unruh and Hawking effect just the same by invoking the equivalence principle?
I found ambiguous statements and this paper contributed to it. http://arxiv.org/pdf/1102.5564v2.pdf
Is anybody here who knows details, can refer any good paper, argumentation?
Thanks in advance!