chill_factor
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lets say we have a covariant 4-gradient ∂_{μ} = (1/c ∂/∂t, ∇). How do I actually apply this to a function, say x^2 where x is an arbitrary 4-vector (ct,-x,-y,-z)?
chill_factor said:lets say we have a covariant 4-gradient ∂_{μ} = (1/c ∂/∂t, ∇). How do I actually apply this to a function, say x^2 where x is an arbitrary 4-vector (ct,-x,-y,-z)?
Lavabug said:What is x^2? Is it the scalar product of x*x or the contravariant vector ((ct)^2, -x^2, -y^2, -z^2)? If it is the latter, just contract:
\partial_\mu x^2^\mu
If it is the former, I suppose you would apply it just like an ordinary 3-gradient on a scalar function.
Lavabug said:Assuming your indices are in the right place, that inner product should give -2, not 1.
You can apply a gradient to a vector, all the time in fluid dynamics. It produces a tensor.
If it is instead ∂_{μ} x_{μ}, using the minkowski metric with signature +,-,-,-, you could get something that looks like (1,1,1,1).
That is the divergence. The gradient is not being involved at all. \partial _{\mu }x^{\mu } = \partial _{t}x^{t} + \triangledown \cdot \vec{x}.chill_factor said:In an example I'm looking at, they tell me ∂_{μ} x^{μ} = 1