- #1
jinawee
- 28
- 2
Homework Statement
Prove that under an infinitesimal Lorentz transformation: [tex] x^\mu \to x^\mu+\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu[/tex] so: [tex]\phi\to\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi[/tex] the Lagrangian varies as:
[tex]\delta \mathcal{L}=-\partial_\mu(\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu \mathcal{L})[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
The new Lagrangian will be:
[tex]
\mathcal{L}(\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi,\partial_\sigma(\phi-\omega^\mu_\nu x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi))[/tex]
The variation is:
[tex]
\delta\mathcal{L}=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi}\delta\phi+\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\partial_\sigma \delta \phi=-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[x^\nu\partial_\mu \phi \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi}+\partial_\sigma(x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi)\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\right][/tex]
If the last term in the sum vanished somehow, I would arrive to the solution, but I can't see how it is zero. Or have I made a mistake before?
I think I've done some progress:
[tex]-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[\partial_\sigma(x^\nu\partial_\mu\phi)\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\sigma\phi)}\right]=-\omega^\mu_\nu \left[ \partial_\mu\phi\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\nu\phi)}+x^\nu \partial_\mu\phi\mathcal{L}\right]=[/tex]
Could I use Euler-Lagrange equations to make this zero?
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