Vector potential of a current carrying circular loop

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Consider a circular loop of radius R that carrys a uniform current I. We know(by Biot-Savart law) that the magnetic field it produces on its axis is given by [itex]\vec{B}=\frac{\mu_0 I R^2 \hat z }{2(z^2+R^2)^\frac 3 2}[/itex].
But let's calculate its vector potential:
[itex] \vec{A}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int \frac{I \vec{dl}}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{I R d\varphi \hat \varphi}{\sqrt{R^2+z^2}}=\frac{\mu_0 I R}{4\pi \sqrt{R^2+z^2}}\int_0^{2\pi} \hat \varphi d\varphi \\[/itex]
But we have [itex]\hat \varphi=-\sin\varphi \hat x +\cos\varphi \hat y[/itex] and so [itex]\int_0 ^{2\pi} \hat\varphi d\varphi=0[/itex] which gives [itex]\vec{A}=0[/itex] and so [itex]\vec{B}=0[/itex] !
What's wrong?
Thanks
 
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DaleSpam said:
What is the relationship between A and B? Given that relationship, does A = 0 at a point imply B = 0 at that point?

[itex]\vec{B}=\vec\nabla \times \vec A[/itex] which gives B=0 for A=0. Gauge freedom can't help too(By definition).
 
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Shyan said:
[itex]\vec{B}=\vec\nabla \times \vec A[/itex] which gives B=0 for A=0
No, it doesn't.

Remember, you have evaluated A only along a line. Is that enough information to calculate its curl?
 
Well if i understand correctly you find the potential only along the z-axis. For a point outside the z-axis [itex]|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|[/itex] will depend on [itex]\varphi[/itex] as well so the integral wouldn't be always zero.