- #1
kelly0303
- 561
- 33
Homework Statement
In this problem, we'll construct the ##(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2})## representation which acts on "bi-spinors" ##V_{\alpha\dot{\alpha}}## with ##\alpha=1,2## and ##\dot{\alpha}=1,2##. It is convential, and convenient, to define these bi-spinors so that the first index transforms under ##\Lambda_R## and the second under the inverse of ##\Lambda_L##. That is, we define: ##V \to \Lambda_R V \Lambda_L^{-1}## .
a) Let's write a generic bi-spinor as ##V_{\alpha \dot{\alpha}}=\begin{pmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{pmatrix}## What is the change in a, b, c and d due to ##V \to \Lambda_R V \Lambda_L^{-1}## by an infinitesimal rotation by an angle ##\theta## around the z axis.
b) Write ##J_z## from part a) as a matrix acting on ##(a, b, c, d)##. What are its eigenvalues?
Homework Equations
##\Lambda_R=e^{\frac{1}{2}(i\theta_j\sigma_j+\beta_j\sigma_j)}##
##\Lambda_L=e^{\frac{1}{2}(i\theta_j\sigma_j-\beta_j\sigma_j)}##
with ##\sigma_j## being the Pauli matrices.
The Attempt at a Solution
a) For an infinitesimal transformation we have $$\Lambda_R V \Lambda_L^{-1}=(1+\frac{1}{2}i\theta_z\sigma_z)
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{pmatrix} (1-\frac{1}{2}i\theta_z\sigma_z)$$
which, after some calculations gives $$
\begin{pmatrix}
a(1+\frac{\theta_z^2}{4}) & b(1+i\theta_z-\frac{\theta_z^2}{4}) \\
c(1-i\theta_z-\frac{\theta_z^2}{4}) & d(1+\frac{\theta_z^2}{4})
\end{pmatrix}
$$
b) Here I tried this: $$(1+\frac{1}{2}i\theta_zJ_z)
\begin{pmatrix}
a\\
b\\
c\\
d
\end{pmatrix}
=
\begin{pmatrix}
a(1+\frac{\theta_z^2}{4})\\
b(1+i\theta_z-\frac{\theta_z^2}{4}) \\
c(1-i\theta_z-\frac{\theta_z^2}{4})\\
d(1+\frac{\theta_z^2}{4})
\end{pmatrix}
$$
But I am not sure what to do now. I expected to get for ##J_z##, something like ##diag(0, -1, 0, 1)## being the combination between a spin 0 and a spin 1 particle. But what I get doesn't look right. Can someone tell me what am I doing wrong? Thank you!