- #1
OhNoYaDidn't
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Hey guys. So, as i was going through Griffith's Electrodynamics, and i came across this problem:
In the solutions:
How to they actually get to that expression for V = (V(bar)+vAx(bar) )Ɣ? I understand everything after that, but this just made me very confused. How do they get this from the inverse Lorentz transformations?
Thank you.
In the solutions:
How to they actually get to that expression for V = (V(bar)+vAx(bar) )Ɣ? I understand everything after that, but this just made me very confused. How do they get this from the inverse Lorentz transformations?
Thank you.
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