yungman
- 5,741
- 294
I read in the book regarding a point charge at the origin where Q(t)= \rho_{(t)}Δv'\;. The wave eq is.
\nabla^2V-\mu\epsilon\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial t^2}= -\frac {\rho_v}{\epsilon}
For point charge at origin, spherical coordinates are used where:
\nabla^2V=\frac 1 {R^2}\frac {\partial}{\partial R}\left( R^2 \frac {\partial V}{\partial R}\right)
This is because point charge at origin, \frac {\partial}{\partial \theta} \hbox{ and }\; \frac {\partial}{\partial \phi} are all zero.
My question is this:
The book then said EXCEPT AT THE ORIGIN, V satisfies the following homogeneous equation:
\frac 1 {R^2}\frac {\partial}{\partial R}\left( R^2 \frac {\partial V}{\partial R}\right)-\mu\epsilon \frac {\partial^2 V}{\partial t^2}=0
The only reason I can think of why this equation has to exclude origin is because R=0 and origin and this won't work. Am I correct or there's another reason?
Thanks
Alan
\nabla^2V-\mu\epsilon\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial t^2}= -\frac {\rho_v}{\epsilon}
For point charge at origin, spherical coordinates are used where:
\nabla^2V=\frac 1 {R^2}\frac {\partial}{\partial R}\left( R^2 \frac {\partial V}{\partial R}\right)
This is because point charge at origin, \frac {\partial}{\partial \theta} \hbox{ and }\; \frac {\partial}{\partial \phi} are all zero.
My question is this:
The book then said EXCEPT AT THE ORIGIN, V satisfies the following homogeneous equation:
\frac 1 {R^2}\frac {\partial}{\partial R}\left( R^2 \frac {\partial V}{\partial R}\right)-\mu\epsilon \frac {\partial^2 V}{\partial t^2}=0
The only reason I can think of why this equation has to exclude origin is because R=0 and origin and this won't work. Am I correct or there's another reason?
Thanks
Alan