Verifying an Integral Representation of the Euler Constant

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around verifying an integral representation of the Euler constant, specifically involving the integral of the expression \(\int^{1}_{0}\frac{1-e^{-t}}{t}dt - \int^{\infty}_{1}\frac{e^{-t}}{t}dt = \gamma\). Participants are exploring the connections between summation and integration in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of a previously proved summation formula and its relation to the integral representation. There are attempts to rescale variables and split integrals to facilitate the verification process. Questions arise about justifying the interchange of limits and integration, as well as the convergence of certain integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and suggestions for approaching the problem. Some have made progress in understanding the convergence of integrals, while others are seeking clarification on specific mathematical justifications related to uniform convergence and the application of theorems.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the extent of guidance provided. There is an emphasis on understanding the underlying mathematical principles rather than simply arriving at a solution.

the_kid
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Homework Statement


I need to verify an integral representation of the Euler constant:

[itex]\int^{1}_{0}[/itex][itex]\frac{1-e^{-t}}{t}[/itex]dt-[itex]\int^{\infty}_{1}[/itex][[itex]\frac{e^{-t}}{t}[/itex]dt=[itex]\gamma[/itex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


OK, I'm supposed to use this fact (which I have already proved):

[itex]\sum^{N}_{n=1}[/itex][itex]\frac{1}{n}[/itex]=[itex]\int^{1}_{0}[/itex][itex]\frac{1-(1-t)^{n}}{t}[/itex]dt.

Then I am supposed to rescale t so that I can apply the follow definition of the exponential function:

lim as n-->infinity of (1+[itex]\frac{z}{n}[/itex])[itex]^{n}[/itex]=[itex]\sum^{\infty}_{k=0}[/itex][itex]\frac{z^{k}}{k!}[/itex]=e[itex]^{z}[/itex]

I'm not seeing how I can use the first fact at all...
 
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Someone has to have an idea on this one...
 
I assume that should be a capital N in your integral expression for [itex]\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{1}{n}[/itex]:
[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{1}{n} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1 - (1-t)^N}{t}dt[/tex]
Assuming that is the case, you could let [itex]u = Nt[/itex]; then your integral becomes
[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{1}{n} = \int_{0}^{N} \frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u} du[/tex]
and you could break this apart as [itex]\int_{0}^{1} + \int_{1}^{N}[/itex]. Dunno if this will get you anywhere but it seems promising.
 
jbunniii said:
I assume that should be a capital N in your integral expression for [itex]\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{1}{n}[/itex]:
[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{N} \frac{1}{n} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1 - (1-t)^N}{t}dt[/tex]
Assuming that is the case, you could let [itex]u = Nt[/itex]; then your integral becomes
[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{1}{n} = \int_{0}^{N} \frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u} du[/tex]
and you could break this apart as [itex]\int_{0}^{1} + \int_{1}^{N}[/itex]. Dunno if this will get you anywhere but it seems promising.

Hmm... OK, this makes sense. What do you mean with the last part about splitting the integral up?
 
the_kid said:
Hmm... OK, this makes sense. What do you mean with the last part about splitting the integral up?

Well, I suggested that because one of the integrals you'll eventually need has 0 and 1 as its endpoints:
[tex]\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1 - e^{-t}}{t} dt[/tex]
So if you can justify interchanging the order of limit and integration,
[tex]\lim_{N \rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{1}\frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
will give you what you need.

That leaves you with the part from 1 to N:
[tex]\int_{1}^{N}\frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
which you could further split up as
[tex]\int_{1}^{N}\frac{1}{u}du - \int_{1}^{N}\frac{\left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
Obviously the term on the left will be useful, given the definition of [itex]\gamma[/itex]. And the term on the right looks like it might converge as [itex]N \rightarrow \infty[/itex] to one of the other integrals you need, although that will also need to be proved.
 
jbunniii said:
Well, I suggested that because one of the integrals you'll eventually need has 0 and 1 as its endpoints:
[tex]\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1 - e^{-t}}{t} dt[/tex]
So if you can justify interchanging the order of limit and integration,
[tex]\lim_{N \rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{1}\frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
will give you what you need.

That leaves you with the part from 1 to N:
[tex]\int_{1}^{N}\frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
which you could further split up as
[tex]\int_{1}^{N}\frac{1}{u}du - \int_{1}^{N}\frac{\left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}du[/tex]
Obviously the term on the left will be useful, given the definition of [itex]\gamma[/itex]. And the term on the right looks like it might converge as [itex]N \rightarrow \infty[/itex] to one of the other integrals you need, although that will also need to be proved.

OK, I've been able to work this out successfully. I'm stuck with two small things:

(1) How can I justify switching the order of integration and summation, as you mentioned?

(2) How do I show that the last integral converges?
 
Never mind, I was able to get the integral to converge. Now my only questions is what justifies switching the order? I know this is a subtle point, but I'd like to understand it.
 
the_kid said:
Never mind, I was able to get the integral to converge. Now my only questions is what justifies switching the order? I know this is a subtle point, but I'd like to understand it.

A sufficient condition for switching the order is if the convergence is uniform, i.e., if
[tex]\lim_{N \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1 - \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N}{u}[/tex]
converges uniformly in [itex][0,1][/itex]. This in turn will be true if and only if
[tex]\lim_{N \rightarrow \infty} \left(1 - \frac{u}{N}\right)^N[/tex]
converges uniformly in [itex][0,1][/itex].
 
Hmm, ok, great. That makes sense. How can I show that this is true? Weirestrass M-test?
 

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