Verifying that f(x,y) is one to one.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining whether the function f(x,y) = 2x + y is one-to-one and onto, specifically in the context of functions with two variables. Participants explore the implications of the function's mapping from R² to R.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definitions of one-to-one and onto functions, questioning how these apply to the given function. Some express uncertainty about whether additional constraints on x and y are necessary for the function to be one-to-one.

Discussion Status

Several participants have provided insights into the nature of the function, with one noting that it is not one-to-one due to the existence of multiple (x,y) pairs yielding the same output. Others have indicated that the function is onto, as it can produce every real number as an output. The discussion is ongoing, with participants considering different aspects of the function's behavior.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the need to consider the range space and the implications of the function mapping from R² to R. Participants are also reflecting on the geometric interpretation of the function as a 2D plane.

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Homework Statement


How do you show that a function with two variables f(x,y) is one-to-one and onto?
example f(x,y) = 2x+y

Homework Equations



Do we have to use linear algebra?
 
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f(x,y) represents a 2D surface.

To have (x,y) -> f(x,y) be 1 to 1 and onto, I think that means that at every height (every value of f) you have a unique point (x,y).

Unless there is some additional constraint for x and y, so that f(x,y) represents a curve I'm not sure that this is possible.

In your example f(x,y) = 2x+y is a 2D plane. For each value of f, you get a line 2x +y = const.

Interesting to think about, though.

-James
 
Proving that f(x,y) is "one-to-one" and "onto" depends upon the range space!

Since f(x,y)= 2x+ y is, for numbers x and y, a single number, the "default" assumption would be that f maps R2 to R.

And to prove, one way or the other, use the definitions!

A function, f, from set U to set V, is said to be "one to one" if and only if two different values, p and q, in U cannot give the same point in V.

Here, U is R2 so we can write [itex]p= (x_1, y_1)[/itex] and [itex]q= (x_2, y_2)[/itex]
. V is R so any point in V is a single number, z. Now, if f= 2x+ y were not one to one, then there would exist [itex]p= (x_1, y_1)[/itex] and [itex]q= (x_2, y_2)[/itex] such that [itex]f(p)= 2x_1+ y_1= 2x_2+ y_2= f(q)[/itex]. That would mean [itex]2(x_1- x_2)= -(y_1- y_2)= 0[/itex] Well, take [itex]x_1= 3[/itex], [itex]x_2= 2[/itex], [itex]y_1= 1[/itex], [itex]y_2= 3[/itex]. Then [itex]x_1- x_2= 3- 2= 1[/itex] so [itex]2(x_1- x_2)= 2[/itex] and [itex]y_1- y_2= -2[/itex] so [itex]-(y_1- y_2)= 2[/itex] also.

That is, f(3, 1)= 2(3)+ 1= 7 and f(2, 3)= 2(2)+ 3= 7. No, f(x, y)=2x+ y is NOT "one to one".

A function, f, from set U to set V, is "onto" (the set V) if and only if, for any point q in V, there exist at least one point p, in U so that f(p)= q. To show that f(x,y)= 2x+ y is "onto" R, let z be any real number (any point in R) and look for (x, y) (a point in R2) such that 2x+y= z. In fact (exactly because this function is not "one to one") there are many such points. Take, for example, y to be z- 2 and x to be 1.

Yes, f(x, y)= 2x+ y is "onto" the set of real numbers.
 
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thank you for all your replies would try it out :)
 

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