- #1
alyafey22
Gold Member
MHB
- 1,561
- 0
I was solving an integral and I got an over complicated result 
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\log^2\left(\phi\right)-\frac{1}{4}\log^2\left( \frac{1+\phi }{4}\right)-\arctan^2\left(\sqrt{\phi}\right)\)
where $\phi$ is the golden ratio .
The numeric value proved an equivalence to the value of the integral .
Can anybody simplify it a little bit , or should I leave it like this ?
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\log^2\left(\phi\right)-\frac{1}{4}\log^2\left( \frac{1+\phi }{4}\right)-\arctan^2\left(\sqrt{\phi}\right)\)
where $\phi$ is the golden ratio .
The numeric value proved an equivalence to the value of the integral .
Can anybody simplify it a little bit , or should I leave it like this ?