russ_watters said:
Well yes, it is semantics, but in common use that tends to mean "hairsplitting", which it is not. If Obama announces "I'm ending the war on terror", most people will know exactly what he means. But with the "war on drugs", because it is not a single policy initiative, the idea of "ending the war on drugs" can mean very different things to different people. That lack of consistent meaning is why it is a useless slogan. People need to instead describe exactly what changes they would make to the existing legal framework. And a simple "legalize drugs" isn't enough either. They need to be prepared to deal with the complex meaning and ramifications of complete legalization.
Agreed to an extent. There's more to it than "legalize drugs!", but the main point is that current policy is ineffective, expensive, not serving the betterment of our society. It needs to be addressed and overhauled. Many people
do express the changes they would make, as not everyone believes we should go cold turkey on the drug enforcement policies. But eliminating mandatory minimums for drug users (for example) would be a good start.
On the other hand, what are some of the major ramifications that you see from legalization and regulation of drugs that public policy would have to tackle that it doesn't already do with alcohol, tobacco, and perscription drugs?
And that is, of course, ignoring the fact that there are people who mistakenly believe it is a single coherent policy - and even an actual "war", such as Pythagorean appears to believe.
Sure, but their mistake doesn't mean their opinion is invalid. Most people just don't understand why so many people are jailed and fined for possession and use of drugs, or why the government spends so much on
trying, and not typically succeeding, to stop it's sale and use. I look at it more of anti-persecution sentiment than an actual attempt at reforming public policy.
Can you explain why you think these two statements don't contradict each other?
My point is that your metric for measuring failure is incomplete. Comparing the number of drug users
only of the two isn't exactly apples to apples. We have a set of policies that attempt to lower drug use, and those policies don't cause a
downward trend of drug use for the billions of dollars spent enforcing them.
As a set of policies, the drug prohibition laws in this country have a set directive either to eliminate or minimize drug use, or eliminate/minimize drug related crime. If the current policies are failing to do that (or potentially exacerbate the problem, as it can be argued the drug prohibition does with drug related crime), then they do not work and the money would be better spent elsewhere.
The other is the repeal of drug enforcement policies which would be done with the understanding that the drug use would increase to some degree. Only if the amount of drug use skyrocketed after repeal of drug prohibition policies could I see it being called a failed social move.
Can you explain why you think these two statements don't contradict each other? If we replace "any" with "enough", that would fix it, but I don't like having to strip-off exaggeration, particularly when it is more than just a matter of degree but actually changes the meaning.
It's been used before, but how many people do you think aren't doing drugs and commiting drug related crime simply because it's illegal? Then, an addendum to the first part, how much money do we want to spend to ensure that people don't use drugs, and to what extent do we punish people who choose to do drugs? Is there a point where the government is actually doing more damage to people and society by enforcing drug policies as opposed to letting people do the drugs?
An overall comment that relates to much of what is in your post, you shouldn't make the mistake of thinking this is a black-and-white, coherent issue for anyone, including me.
No I'm with you, I understand that it is a complex social issue. But to me the prohibition of drugs is a failed and dangerous social policy. The gray area comes into play for me when we talk about how legalization or decriminalization would be implemented.
I'm not in favor of the status quo and I would prefer more fines and forced treatment instead of jail for users.
Quick question on this one, why fine or jail users at all? I never got the idea of punishing users...
But with the possible exception of pot legalization, that's as far as I'd change things. Still, that alone could have a marked effect of reducing prison populations and maybe even adding some revenue. But that is somewhat tangential to the scope of the thread; I didn't write the article in the OP, so the thesis here isn't mine.
Sure. I wouldn't go cold turkey with the policies either. But if we make an exception for one of the drugs considered illicit currently, then we necessarily imply that there is a condition under which it is ok for illicit drugs to be legal; and then we have to come up with a reasonable line and define
why some drugs are ok and others are bad. (again, we do this with alcohol and tobacco already...)
C'mon. You say you can't think of a reason for it to matter, but you acknowledge that many/most drugs are bad. That's why it matters!
Yea but public policy shouldn't be to give jail sentences and crippling fines/court costs (or pass those onto the public) simply because people choose to do things that are bad for them. That seems crazy, doesn't it? What part of jail is
better for anyone? I'm sure it stops a few people from starting, but once those kids go to jail, how effective do you think it is? How many kids get out of jail after 2 years and never smoke crack again because they're afraid of jail?
I pose the question again, why is it
punishible to do drugs, even things like heroin or crack cocaine?
If you're a mother or father doing drugs in the house, then you get child endangerment.
If your driving under the influence, then you've got a slew of charges for that.
If you are dealing to underage kids, then you've got trafficking.
But why is personal use actually punishable?
For the most part, the cartels don't exist/operate in the US, so that isn't very relevant to the issue.
We spend billions yearly on fighting cartels in their home countries, actually...But the point is that legalizing drugs and regulating their trade will cripple and destroy the back door markets run by these cartels. They can't operate if there's no demand because users can get it cheaper and free and with no risk of jail time from the government or the guy down the road.
Well that's a bit circular, since you can do that for any illegal activity. Make murder legal and *poof*, murderers are no longer criminals. That's neither here nor there.
haha, ok I worded that poorly. What I meant is that we label drug users criminals, and then that's a hard cycle to break out of. If you've got drug charges (and prison sentences) how much upward mobility do you really have to get yourself into a better situation. If you call people criminals, most of them will act that way...
I don't know. Do you agree, though, that the number is greater than zero? If nothing else, being illegal makes the street price higher due to lower availability. That makes it more difficult to become a drug user than if it were completely legal.
Yes, for sure. But it's not the governments job to protect us from harming ourselves to the extent of jail, right? And drug prices would have to be regulated as well. High enough to limit the number of people who use, but low enough to disincentivize the use of a black market. I think that surely the number of users would go up (at least at first), but I don't see that as a reason to continue enforcing what are currently ineffective policies (apart from their status quo maintenance of drug use).
The beef isn't intended by either the manufacturer or the user to be rancid. Drugs are intended to be what they are by the manufacturer, sell and user. A better comparison would be a machine gun, which is illegal to manufacture, sell and own (for civilians). But if a civilian gets ahold of one, it is exactly what he, the manufacturer and seller intended it to be.
Continuing with that comparison, without regulation there are a number of beef distributers which would pop up that intend the beef to be exactly as rancid as the regulations would allow. Obviously it wouldn't make good business sense to have your customers get sick all the time, but if unregulated there would be a certain percentage that they would consider acceptable.
A machine gun has at it's purpose the ability to harm other things and people. Hence it's illegality. Drugs are intended for personal use and the majority of harm done is on the individual level (with obvious exceptional cases).
We've already got regulatory black holes. Tobacco and Alcohol are both
leading causes of death among us citizens and people as a whole. Yet both are legal. Both are obviously bad for you. They are regulated so that the hazards are mitigated (you won't go blind from drinking whiskey, you won't smoke a cigarette filled with toxic levels of pesticides) and then it is up to the individual to use them responsibly. Why is that any different than other drugs?