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Wavefunction After Measurement

  1. May 12, 2012 #1
    Forgive me for asking such a basic question but say for IDSW1 if we have a wavefunction that is a superposition of the first two energy eigenfunctions so:

    ψ(x)=(1/√2)*(ψ1+ψ2)

    then if we measured say E1 we can eliminate the inconsistent part of the wavefunction so the wavefunction collapses to ψ1. Then directly after, and also some time later, will the wavefunction be independent of time so we can in fact simplify the wavefunction to ψ=[itex]\phi[/itex]1?

    Thanks in advance
     
    Last edited: May 12, 2012
  2. jcsd
  3. May 13, 2012 #2

    mfb

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    Staff: Mentor

    You (with collapse or similar interpretations) or the part which measures 1 (with MWI) can describe the state as stationary with wave function 1, correct. The time-dependence is just a global rotation of the phase.
     
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