LeBrad
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I am familiar with the existence and uniqueness of solutions to the system
\dot{x} = f(x)
requiring f(x) to be Lipschitz continuous, but I am wondering what the conditions are for the system
\dot{q}(x) = f(x).
It seems like I could make the same argument for there existing a unique q(x) provided f(x) is Lipschitz with respect to q(x). Then if q(x) is invertible or one-to-one or whatever the proper math term is, then I can get a unique x. Is that correct? If that's the case it looks like I'm just doing a nonlinear change of coordinates, showing uniqueness in that coordinate system, and then having a unique map back to the original coordinate system.
\dot{x} = f(x)
requiring f(x) to be Lipschitz continuous, but I am wondering what the conditions are for the system
\dot{q}(x) = f(x).
It seems like I could make the same argument for there existing a unique q(x) provided f(x) is Lipschitz with respect to q(x). Then if q(x) is invertible or one-to-one or whatever the proper math term is, then I can get a unique x. Is that correct? If that's the case it looks like I'm just doing a nonlinear change of coordinates, showing uniqueness in that coordinate system, and then having a unique map back to the original coordinate system.