I What did Omnès mean with this?

Suekdccia
Messages
352
Reaction score
30
TL;DR Summary
What did Omnès mean with this?
Summary: What did Omnès mean with this?

I found an old article by Roland Omnès which analyzes the EPR paradox and offers a solution to it (https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/0375960189900182).

At some point, the article says:

"Some macroscopic systems do not satisfy the conditions of the proof and classical logic cannot be applied to them [ 8 ]. Physical facts are defined as described by chains of propositions deterministic towards the future"

What did the author mean with this? Did he mention these macroscopic systems as problems that would have to be solved (so classical logic could be applied to them) like the EPR paradox? Or are these macroscopic systems perfectly possible and he was just mentioning them to inform the reader that these systems do exist?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This belongs to the "foundations subforum".
 
  • Like
Likes Demystifier
Suekdccia said:
Summary: What did Omnès mean with this?

What did the author mean with this?
Omnes, like Asher Peres, Jeffrey Bub, Rudolf Haag, Jürg Martin Fröhlich and Robert Griffiths (and others), has essentially come up with a definition of "classical" as meaning all "observables commute". They all use different conditions to formulate when this commutation holds, but since each condition implies the others this doesn't matter too much.

Here Omnes just means there are some macroscopic systems for which this doesn't hold like superfluids. It's not a problem really, just a statement of fact.
 
I would like to know the validity of the following criticism of one of Zeilinger's latest papers https://doi.org/10.48550/arXiv.2507.07756 "violation of bell inequality with unentangled photons" The review is by Francis Villatoro, in Spanish, https://francis.naukas.com/2025/07/26/sin-entrelazamiento-no-se-pueden-incumplir-las-desigualdades-de-bell/ I will translate and summarize the criticism as follows: -It is true that a Bell inequality is violated, but not a CHSH inequality. The...
I understand that the world of interpretations of quantum mechanics is very complex, as experimental data hasn't completely falsified the main deterministic interpretations (such as Everett), vs non-deterministc ones, however, I read in online sources that Objective Collapse theories are being increasingly challenged. Does this mean that deterministic interpretations are more likely to be true? I always understood that the "collapse" or "measurement problem" was how we phrased the fact that...
This is not, strictly speaking, a discussion of interpretations per se. We often see discussions based on QM as it was understood during the early days and the famous Einstein-Bohr debates. The problem with this is that things in QM have advanced tremendously since then, and the 'weirdness' that puzzles those attempting to understand QM has changed. I recently came across a synopsis of these advances, allowing those interested in interpretational issues to understand the modern view...
Back
Top