What does it mean for a Lagrangian to have "explicit" time dependence?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the concept of explicit time dependence in Lagrangians within the context of classical mechanics. Participants explore the implications of time dependence in Lagrangian formulations, including examples and theoretical considerations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a Lagrangian with explicit time dependence and contrasts it with another Lagrangian that has no explicit time dependence, illustrating how the equations of motion can introduce time dependence.
  • Another participant references an external thread and a Quora article to provide additional context on explicit versus implicit time dependence, noting that ∂L/∂t=0 indicates no explicit time dependence.
  • A participant reiterates the initial example of Lagrangians, emphasizing that the Lagrangian is not an equation of motion and should treat q, \dot{q}, and t as independent variables.
  • One participant argues that two Lagrangians are equivalent if they differ by a total time derivative of a function, suggesting that they describe the same physical system and yield the same equations of motion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of time dependence in Lagrangians and the treatment of variables within the Lagrangian framework. There is no consensus on the interpretation of the examples provided or the foundational principles discussed.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the distinction between Lagrangians as equations of motion and the variables involved, indicating a potential misunderstanding of their roles. The discussion also touches on the mathematical conditions for Lagrangian equivalence without resolving the implications of these conditions.

aliens123
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Suppose I had a Lagrangian
$$L = q+ \dot{q}^2 + t.$$
This has explicit time dependence. Now consider another Lagrangian:
$$L = q+ \dot{q}^2 .$$
Which has no explicit time dependence. But after solving for the equations of motion, I get $$\dot{q} = t/2 + C.$$
So I could now write my Lagrangian as:
$$L = q+ (t/2 + C)^2 .$$
Now it has explicit time dependence.
 
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aliens123 said:
Suppose I had a Lagrangian
$$L = q+ \dot{q}^2 + t.$$
This has explicit time dependence. Now consider another Lagrangian:
$$L = q+ \dot{q}^2 .$$
Which has no explicit time dependence. But after solving for the equations of motion, I get $$\dot{q} = t/2 + C.$$
So I could now write my Lagrangian as:
$$L = q+ (t/2 + C)^2 .$$
Now it has explicit time dependence.
The Lagrangian is not an equation of motion. The Lagrangian is used to obtain the equations of motion. You cannot substitute an equation of motion back into the Lagrangian.

The foundation of the Lagrangian approach is to treat ##q##, ##\dot q## and ##t## as independent variables and not as dynamic quantities that are related to each other.
 
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The two Lagrangians are equivalent and thus describing the same physical system. The equations of motion are the same. It's very easy to show by explicitly evaluating the Euler-Lagrange equations that any two Lagrangians ##L## and ##L'## are equivalent iff
$$L'(q,\dot{q},t)=L(q,\dot{q},t)+\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t} \Omega(q,t),$$
for an arbitrary function ##\Omega##.

That's equivalent to the demand that the variation ##\delta S## of the action is unchanged, which of course implies that the Euler-Lagrange equations are the same.
 
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