yungman
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Poynting Theorem stated:
\vec E \cdot \vec J = - \frac 1 2 \frac {\partial} {\partial t} ( \epsilon E^2 + \frac 1 {\mu} B^2) - \frac 1 {\mu} \nabla \cdot( \vec E \times \vec B)
In pure electrodynamic point of view,
\vec E \cdot \vec J = \sigma E^2 which is nothing more than conductive loss ( resistance ohmic loss).
But I have a suspicion that is more to it than this...nothing is that simple. Please tell me what I missed.
Thanks
Alan
\vec E \cdot \vec J = - \frac 1 2 \frac {\partial} {\partial t} ( \epsilon E^2 + \frac 1 {\mu} B^2) - \frac 1 {\mu} \nabla \cdot( \vec E \times \vec B)
In pure electrodynamic point of view,
\vec E \cdot \vec J = \sigma E^2 which is nothing more than conductive loss ( resistance ohmic loss).
But I have a suspicion that is more to it than this...nothing is that simple. Please tell me what I missed.
Thanks
Alan