miketem
- 4
- 0
Does anyone knows how to explain (both physics and mathematics) why there's no magnetic mono-pole?
The discussion revolves around the existence and theoretical implications of magnetic monopoles, exploring both physical and mathematical explanations for their absence. Participants delve into concepts related to angular motion, charge isolation, and historical experiments aimed at detecting monopoles.
Participants express a range of views on the existence of magnetic monopoles, with no consensus reached. Some propose theoretical frameworks while others emphasize the lack of experimental evidence.
Participants note that the discussion includes speculative ideas and hypotheses that are not experimentally verified, and there are references to limitations in current understanding and detection methods.
What i mean is: compare with the charge (Q), which is can isolate to mono-pole ( +Q or -Q ), and we can interpret each behavior separately.dE_logics said:Physics can alone do that job.
M.F arises cause of angular motion mostly, and the character of angular motion is that from one side it looks like tuning clockwise and the other side anticlockwise.
As a result you get 2 poles.
Similar can be said about a charged particle in leaner motion; from one side its direction is left, from the other its right.
dE_logics said:You mean what I've said yet unknown?
miketem said:What i mean is: compare with the charge (Q), which is can isolate to mono-pole ( +Q or -Q ), and we can interpret each behavior separately.
xepma said:You are referring to magnetic fields that arise due to some electrical current.