What Happens to sin(x)/x as x Approaches Infinity?

  • Thread starter Thread starter PhizKid
  • Start date Start date
PhizKid
Messages
477
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement


\lim_{x \to \infty } \frac{\sin x}{x}


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


\lim_{x \to \infty } \frac{\sin x}{x}
Substitute x = 1/u
\lim_{\frac{1}{u} \to 0 } \frac{\sin \frac{1}{u}}{\frac{1}{u}} = 1

I know this is incorrect because intuitively I know that sinx will oscillate between 0 and 1, but the denominator will grow larger infinitely, therefore should theoretically approach 0 but that's just my thinking and no hard evidence.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
PhizKid said:

Homework Statement


\lim_{x \to \infty } \frac{\sin x}{x}


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


\lim_{x \to \infty } \frac{\sin x}{x}
Substitute x = 1/u
\lim_{\frac{1}{u} \to 0 } \frac{\sin \frac{1}{u}}{\frac{1}{u}} = 1

I know this is incorrect because intuitively I know that sinx will oscillate between 0 and 1, but the denominator will grow larger infinitely, therefore should theoretically approach 0 but that's just my thinking and no hard evidence.

Translate what you correctly know into an argument using the squeeze theorem.
 
We haven't learned the squeeze theorem, so should I just take sinx/x as x-> inf as 0 for granted and just memorize it like I do with sinx/x as x-> 0? (We were given sinx/x as x-> 0 to be 1, but were told to just memorize it)
 
PhizKid said:
We haven't learned the squeeze theorem, so should I just take sinx/x as x-> inf as 0 for granted and just memorize it like I do with sinx/x as x-> 0? (We were given sinx/x as x-> 0 to be 1, but were told to just memorize it)

No, there's no need to memorize it. Remember -1<=sin(x)<=1, so -1/x<=sin(x)/x<=1/x. Even if you don't have the theorem that should make it pretty obvious that the limit is 0.
 
PhizKid said:
\lim_{x \to \infty } \frac{\sin x}{x}
Substitute x = 1/u
\lim_{\frac{1}{u} \to 0 } \frac{\sin \frac{1}{u}}{\frac{1}{u}} = 1

That doesn't look right, if you're going to plug 1/u in for x then everything else needs to stay the same. As you have it there, you've changed the limit from x\to\infty to \frac{1}{u} \to 0 when it should be \frac{1}{u} \to \infty
But regardless, this won't help you.

PhizKid said:
We haven't learned the squeeze theorem, so should I just take sinx/x as x-> inf as 0 for granted and just memorize it like I do with sinx/x as x-> 0? (We were given sinx/x as x-> 0 to be 1, but were told to just memorize it)

Well then I guess you can just memorize it, but the squeeze theorem isn't very hard to understand really, especially for this example.

It's true that -1\leq \sin(x)\leq 1 right?
So if we divide all through by x, we get \frac{-1}{x}\leq \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\leq \frac{1}{x}
And now we know that the limit as x\to\infty for both -1/x and 1/x is equal to zero, and since \sin(x)/x is in between those, its limit must also be zero.
 
Wow, thank you. That helps a ton, so now I know how to explicitly state this
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
Back
Top